Congratulations on completing FirstAidWeb’s ACLS Provider Certification Course! You’ve invested the time, effort, and commitment—now it’s time to secure your certification.
This exam isn’t meant to trick you. It’s designed to confirm your understanding of the material. Take a breath, get focused, and review the key details below before you begin.
What is the most common reversible cause of cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Hypovolemia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be corrected with fluid resuscitation.
Correct. Hypovolemia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be corrected with fluid resuscitation.
How should compressions be performed for an infant during CPR?
Incorrect. The two-thumb encircling technique provides high-quality compressions for infants during CPR.
Correct. The two-thumb encircling technique provides high-quality compressions for infants during CPR.
Synchronized cardioversion is the treatment of choice for unstable atrial flutter.
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion restores organized cardiac activity in unstable atrial flutter.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion restores organized cardiac activity in unstable atrial flutter.
Hypokalemia is included in the "H's" of reversible cardiac arrest causes.
Incorrect. Hypokalemia can cause cardiac arrhythmias and is included in the "H's" of reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
Correct. Hypokalemia can cause cardiac arrhythmias and is included in the "H's" of reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
Naloxone should be administered to all cardiac arrest patients.
Incorrect. Naloxone is only used in cases of suspected opioid overdose and is not universally administered in cardiac arrest.
Correct. Naloxone is only used in cases of suspected opioid overdose and is not universally administered in cardiac arrest.
The correct dose of epinephrine for pediatric cardiac arrest is 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO.
Incorrect. Epinephrine at 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO is administered every 3-5 minutes to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion in children.
Correct. Epinephrine at 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO is administered every 3-5 minutes to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion in children.
What is the initial step in the BLS survey?
Incorrect. Assessing responsiveness is the first step in determining the need for CPR or other interventions in the BLS survey.
Correct. Assessing responsiveness is the first step in determining the need for CPR or other interventions in the BLS survey.
Hypovolemia is a reversible cause of pulseless electrical activity (PEA).
Incorrect. Hypovolemia is a common reversible cause of PEA and should be addressed with rapid fluid resuscitation.
Correct. Hypovolemia is a common reversible cause of PEA and should be addressed with rapid fluid resuscitation.
What is the correct joules dose for synchronized cardioversion in narrow, regular tachycardia?
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion with 50-100 J is effective for narrow, regular tachycardias that are unstable.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion with 50-100 J is effective for narrow, regular tachycardias that are unstable.
What is the appropriate dose of magnesium for torsades de pointes?
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the cardiac membrane and is the drug of choice for treating torsades de pointes.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the cardiac membrane and is the drug of choice for treating torsades de pointes.
What is the appropriate treatment for severe bradycardia in pediatric patients unresponsive to atropine?
Incorrect. Epinephrine is given as a continuous infusion to maintain adequate heart rate and perfusion when atropine is ineffective.
Correct. Epinephrine is given as a continuous infusion to maintain adequate heart rate and perfusion when atropine is ineffective.
What is the next step if VF persists after 2 defibrillation attempts?
Incorrect. If VF persists after defibrillation and epinephrine, amiodarone is administered to stabilize the rhythm.
Correct. If VF persists after defibrillation and epinephrine, amiodarone is administered to stabilize the rhythm.
What is the recommended initial dose of adenosine for adults?
Incorrect. Adenosine is administered as a 6 mg rapid IV push, followed by a saline flush, to terminate reentrant arrhythmias.
Correct. Adenosine is administered as a 6 mg rapid IV push, followed by a saline flush, to terminate reentrant arrhythmias.
How often should team roles be rotated during CPR to avoid fatigue?
Incorrect. Rotating team roles every 2 minutes prevents fatigue, ensuring consistent delivery of high-quality chest compressions.
Correct. Rotating team roles every 2 minutes prevents fatigue, ensuring consistent delivery of high-quality chest compressions.
What is the best method to monitor the quality of CPR?
Incorrect. PETCO2 monitoring provides real-time feedback on chest compressions and the effectiveness of CPR.
Correct. PETCO2 monitoring provides real-time feedback on chest compressions and the effectiveness of CPR.
What is the maximum dose of lidocaine in ACLS?
Incorrect. Lidocaine is an antiarrhythmic drug used as an alternative to amiodarone for VF or pulseless VT.
Correct. Lidocaine is an antiarrhythmic drug used as an alternative to amiodarone for VF or pulseless VT.
What is the target oxygen saturation during post-cardiac arrest care?
Incorrect. Oxygen saturation should be maintained at 92-96% to avoid hypoxia and reduce the risk of hyperoxia and oxidative stress.
Correct. Oxygen saturation should be maintained at 92-96% to avoid hypoxia and reduce the risk of hyperoxia and oxidative stress.
During CPR, rescuers should rotate roles every 5 minutes to reduce fatigue.
Incorrect. Rescuers should switch roles every 2 minutes to maintain high-quality chest compressions and prevent fatigue.
Correct. Rescuers should switch roles every 2 minutes to maintain high-quality chest compressions and prevent fatigue.
What is the correct response if a shockable rhythm persists after the first shock?
Incorrect. High-quality CPR should be resumed immediately after a shock to maintain perfusion and increase the likelihood of ROSC.
Correct. High-quality CPR should be resumed immediately after a shock to maintain perfusion and increase the likelihood of ROSC.
What is the maximum dose of atropine for bradycardia?
Incorrect. Atropine doses should not exceed 3 mg during bradycardia management to avoid adverse effects.
Correct. Atropine doses should not exceed 3 mg during bradycardia management to avoid adverse effects.
What is the appropriate interval for rhythm checks during CPR?
Incorrect. Rhythm checks are performed every 2 minutes to evaluate for shockable rhythms and assess the need for defibrillation.
Correct. Rhythm checks are performed every 2 minutes to evaluate for shockable rhythms and assess the need for defibrillation.
The recommended oxygen saturation goal during post-cardiac arrest care is 92-96%.
Incorrect. Maintaining oxygen saturation at 92-96% prevents hypoxia and avoids complications associated with hyperoxia.
Correct. Maintaining oxygen saturation at 92-96% prevents hypoxia and avoids complications associated with hyperoxia.
How should you position an unconscious patient with a suspected spinal injury?
Incorrect. The jaw thrust technique opens the airway while minimizing cervical spine movement, reducing the risk of further injury.
Correct. The jaw thrust technique opens the airway while minimizing cervical spine movement, reducing the risk of further injury.
What is the initial dose of magnesium sulfate for torsades de pointes?
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate is administered to stabilize the myocardium and treat torsades de pointes effectively.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate is administered to stabilize the myocardium and treat torsades de pointes effectively.
ROSC is defined as the return of a detectable pulse and effective blood circulation.
Incorrect. ROSC signifies the resumption of spontaneous cardiac activity with effective circulation, improving patient survival.
Correct. ROSC signifies the resumption of spontaneous cardiac activity with effective circulation, improving patient survival.
Synchronized cardioversion is used for pulseless ventricular tachycardia.
Incorrect. Pulseless VT is treated with defibrillation, while synchronized cardioversion is reserved for tachyarrhythmias with a pulse.
Correct. Pulseless VT is treated with defibrillation, while synchronized cardioversion is reserved for tachyarrhythmias with a pulse.
The recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR without an advanced airway is 30:2.
Incorrect. A 30:2 ratio ensures sufficient oxygenation and circulation in adults during CPR without an advanced airway.
Correct. A 30:2 ratio ensures sufficient oxygenation and circulation in adults during CPR without an advanced airway.
What is the most reliable indicator of effective CPR?
Incorrect. A PETCO2 reading above 10 mmHg indicates adequate chest compressions and cardiac output during CPR.
Correct. A PETCO2 reading above 10 mmHg indicates adequate chest compressions and cardiac output during CPR.
What is the target core temperature during targeted temperature management (TTM)?
Incorrect. TTM helps reduce neurological injury after ROSC by maintaining a target temperature between 32-36°C.
Correct. TTM helps reduce neurological injury after ROSC by maintaining a target temperature between 32-36°C.
What is the first-line drug for narrow-complex SVT?
Incorrect. Adenosine is used to terminate reentrant arrhythmias in narrow-complex SVT by slowing conduction through the AV node.
Correct. Adenosine is used to terminate reentrant arrhythmias in narrow-complex SVT by slowing conduction through the AV node.
What is the first drug given for VF or pulseless VT?
Incorrect. Epinephrine is administered after defibrillation to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion during resuscitation.
Correct. Epinephrine is administered after defibrillation to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion during resuscitation.
What is the recommended energy dose for defibrillation in adults using a biphasic defibrillator?
Incorrect. Biphasic defibrillators deliver effective shocks within the range of 120-200 J, restoring organized electrical activity.
Correct. Biphasic defibrillators deliver effective shocks within the range of 120-200 J, restoring organized electrical activity.
What is the proper treatment for pulseless ventricular tachycardia?
Incorrect. Defibrillation is the primary treatment for pulseless VT, aiming to restore organized cardiac activity.
Correct. Defibrillation is the primary treatment for pulseless VT, aiming to restore organized cardiac activity.
What is the best indicator of effective ventilation during CPR?
Incorrect. PETCO2 monitoring provides real-time feedback on ventilation and the effectiveness of chest compressions.
Correct. PETCO2 monitoring provides real-time feedback on ventilation and the effectiveness of chest compressions.
What is the best indicator of ROSC during CPR?
Incorrect. A sudden increase in PETCO2 is a reliable indicator of ROSC, reflecting improved circulation and gas exchange.
Correct. A sudden increase in PETCO2 is a reliable indicator of ROSC, reflecting improved circulation and gas exchange.
What is the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio for infants with two rescuers?
Incorrect. The 15:2 ratio improves oxygenation and circulation during high-quality infant CPR performed by two rescuers.
Correct. The 15:2 ratio improves oxygenation and circulation during high-quality infant CPR performed by two rescuers.
How should you assess effective CPR in real-time?
Incorrect. PETCO2 monitoring provides continuous feedback on the quality of chest compressions and the effectiveness of resuscitation.
Correct. PETCO2 monitoring provides continuous feedback on the quality of chest compressions and the effectiveness of resuscitation.
How should you confirm ET tube placement in a patient?
Incorrect. Waveform capnography ensures proper ET tube placement by monitoring exhaled CO? levels.
Correct. Waveform capnography ensures proper ET tube placement by monitoring exhaled CO? levels.
Asystole requires immediate defibrillation.
Incorrect. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm and is treated with high-quality CPR and epinephrine administration.
Correct. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm and is treated with high-quality CPR and epinephrine administration.
Which drug can increase the heart rate in symptomatic bradycardia?
Incorrect. Atropine blocks vagal stimulation, increasing heart rate in cases of symptomatic bradycardia.
Correct. Atropine blocks vagal stimulation, increasing heart rate in cases of symptomatic bradycardia.
What is the recommended treatment for tension pneumothorax?
Incorrect. Needle decompression relieves pressure caused by tension pneumothorax, improving ventilation and circulation.
Correct. Needle decompression relieves pressure caused by tension pneumothorax, improving ventilation and circulation.
What is the recommended dose of adenosine for treating stable SVT in adults?
Incorrect. Adenosine is administered as a rapid IV push at an initial dose of 6 mg to terminate stable SVT.
Correct. Adenosine is administered as a rapid IV push at an initial dose of 6 mg to terminate stable SVT.
What is the initial dose of amiodarone for pulseless ventricular tachycardia?
Incorrect. Stabilizes the myocardium and suppresses arrhythmias during refractory VF or pulseless VT.
Correct. Stabilizes the myocardium and suppresses arrhythmias during refractory VF or pulseless VT.
Epinephrine is administered every 5-10 minutes during cardiac arrest.
Incorrect. Epinephrine is administered every 3-5 minutes during cardiac arrest to maximize coronary and cerebral perfusion.
Correct. Epinephrine is administered every 3-5 minutes during cardiac arrest to maximize coronary and cerebral perfusion.
What is the recommended action for a choking infant who becomes unresponsive?
Incorrect. Chest compressions are performed to dislodge the obstruction and restore effective ventilation in an unresponsive infant.
Correct. Chest compressions are performed to dislodge the obstruction and restore effective ventilation in an unresponsive infant.
What drug is used for torsades de pointes during ACLS?
Incorrect. Stabilizes the myocardial membrane and prevents arrhythmias.
Correct. Stabilizes the myocardial membrane and prevents arrhythmias.
High-quality CPR requires a compression fraction of >80%.
Incorrect. A compression fraction >80% ensures that the majority of CPR time is spent delivering chest compressions to improve outcomes.
Correct. A compression fraction >80% ensures that the majority of CPR time is spent delivering chest compressions to improve outcomes.
What is the proper compression depth for high-quality CPR in adults?
Incorrect. Compressing the chest 2-2.4 inches ensures adequate blood flow while minimizing injury risks.
Correct. Compressing the chest 2-2.4 inches ensures adequate blood flow while minimizing injury risks.
What is the recommended action after ROSC is achieved?
Incorrect. Oxygenation and ventilation should be optimized to avoid hypoxia or hyperoxia during post-cardiac arrest care.
Correct. Oxygenation and ventilation should be optimized to avoid hypoxia or hyperoxia during post-cardiac arrest care.
What is the recommended dose of dopamine infusion for bradycardia?
Incorrect. Dopamine is used when atropine is ineffective, improving heart rate and contractility by stimulating beta receptors.
Correct. Dopamine is used when atropine is ineffective, improving heart rate and contractility by stimulating beta receptors.
Atropine is used to treat pulseless ventricular tachycardia.
Incorrect. Pulseless VT is treated with defibrillation, not atropine. Atropine is used for symptomatic bradycardia.
Correct. Pulseless VT is treated with defibrillation, not atropine. Atropine is used for symptomatic bradycardia.
What is the compression-to-ventilation ratio for pediatric CPR with two rescuers?
Incorrect. A 15:2 ratio is used during pediatric CPR with two rescuers to optimize ventilation and circulation.
Correct. A 15:2 ratio is used during pediatric CPR with two rescuers to optimize ventilation and circulation.
What is the purpose of targeted temperature management (TTM)?
Incorrect. TTM prevents further neurological injury by maintaining a controlled core temperature after ROSC.
Correct. TTM prevents further neurological injury by maintaining a controlled core temperature after ROSC.
What is the compression depth for infant CPR?
Incorrect. Compressing one-third the depth of the chest ensures adequate perfusion while minimizing the risk of injury.
Correct. Compressing one-third the depth of the chest ensures adequate perfusion while minimizing the risk of injury.
Synchronized cardioversion is the treatment of choice for unstable atrial fibrillation.
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion is used for unstable atrial fibrillation to restore organized electrical activity.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion is used for unstable atrial fibrillation to restore organized electrical activity.
How often should rhythm checks occur during ongoing CPR?
Incorrect. Rhythm checks are performed every 2 minutes to evaluate for shockable rhythms and assess the effectiveness of interventions.
Correct. Rhythm checks are performed every 2 minutes to evaluate for shockable rhythms and assess the effectiveness of interventions.
What is the primary goal during post-cardiac arrest care?
Incorrect. Oxygenation and ventilation should be closely monitored to prevent hypoxia and hyperoxia.
Correct. Oxygenation and ventilation should be closely monitored to prevent hypoxia and hyperoxia.
What is the recommended duration of a pulse check in cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Pulse checks should be limited to 10 seconds to minimize interruptions in chest compressions.
Correct. Pulse checks should be limited to 10 seconds to minimize interruptions in chest compressions.
The target temperature for targeted temperature management (TTM) is 32-36°C.
Incorrect. TTM is used to reduce neurological injury post-ROSC by maintaining a core temperature of 32-36°C.
Correct. TTM is used to reduce neurological injury post-ROSC by maintaining a core temperature of 32-36°C.
How often should you assess the rhythm during ongoing CPR?
Incorrect. Rhythm checks are performed every 2 minutes during pauses in CPR to evaluate for shockable rhythms.
Correct. Rhythm checks are performed every 2 minutes during pauses in CPR to evaluate for shockable rhythms.
What is the correct defibrillation dose for adults in VF?
Incorrect. For biphasic defibrillators, 120-200 J is the recommended energy range for VF.
Correct. For biphasic defibrillators, 120-200 J is the recommended energy range for VF.
PETCO2 levels >10 mmHg during CPR indicate high-quality chest compressions.
Incorrect. PETCO2 levels greater than 10 mmHg suggest that chest compressions are generating adequate circulation.
Correct. PETCO2 levels greater than 10 mmHg suggest that chest compressions are generating adequate circulation.
The compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR without an advanced airway is 15:2.
Incorrect. The correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR without an advanced airway is 30:2.
Correct. The correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR without an advanced airway is 30:2.
What is the preferred method for confirming endotracheal tube placement?
Incorrect. The most reliable method to confirm and monitor placement by measuring exhaled CO?.
Correct. The most reliable method to confirm and monitor placement by measuring exhaled CO?.
What is the recommended oxygen saturation goal during post-cardiac arrest care?
Incorrect. Oxygen saturation should be maintained at 92-96% to prevent hypoxia and avoid the harmful effects of hyperoxia.
Correct. Oxygen saturation should be maintained at 92-96% to prevent hypoxia and avoid the harmful effects of hyperoxia.
