Congratulations on completing FirstAidWeb’s ACLS Provider Certification Course! You’ve invested the time, effort, and commitment—now it’s time to secure your certification.
This exam isn’t meant to trick you. It’s designed to confirm your understanding of the material. Take a breath, get focused, and review the key details below before you begin.
What is the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio for infants with two rescuers?
Incorrect. The 15:2 ratio improves oxygenation and circulation during high-quality infant CPR performed by two rescuers.
Correct. The 15:2 ratio improves oxygenation and circulation during high-quality infant CPR performed by two rescuers.
What is the first drug given for VF or pulseless VT?
Incorrect. Epinephrine is administered after defibrillation to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion during resuscitation.
Correct. Epinephrine is administered after defibrillation to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion during resuscitation.
ROSC stands for Return of Circulation Success.
Incorrect. ROSC stands for "Return of Spontaneous Circulation," indicating the resumption of a perfusing rhythm.
Correct. ROSC stands for "Return of Spontaneous Circulation," indicating the resumption of a perfusing rhythm.
What is the correct joules dose for synchronized cardioversion in narrow, regular tachycardia?
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion with 50-100 J is effective for narrow, regular tachycardias that are unstable.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion with 50-100 J is effective for narrow, regular tachycardias that are unstable.
What is the appropriate interval for rhythm checks during CPR?
Incorrect. Rhythm checks are performed every 2 minutes to evaluate for shockable rhythms and assess the need for defibrillation.
Correct. Rhythm checks are performed every 2 minutes to evaluate for shockable rhythms and assess the need for defibrillation.
How long should you pause chest compressions to deliver a shock?
Incorrect. Minimizes interruptions to maintain blood flow to vital organs.
Correct. Minimizes interruptions to maintain blood flow to vital organs.
What is the best indicator of effective ventilation during CPR?
Incorrect. PETCO2 monitoring provides real-time feedback on ventilation and the effectiveness of chest compressions.
Correct. PETCO2 monitoring provides real-time feedback on ventilation and the effectiveness of chest compressions.
What is the target oxygen saturation during CPR?
Incorrect. Maintaining oxygen saturation within this range ensures adequate oxygenation without the risk of hyperoxia.
Correct. Maintaining oxygen saturation within this range ensures adequate oxygenation without the risk of hyperoxia.
What is the most reliable indicator of effective chest compressions?
Incorrect. PETCO2 values greater than 10 mmHg during CPR indicate adequate chest compressions and blood circulation.
Correct. PETCO2 values greater than 10 mmHg during CPR indicate adequate chest compressions and blood circulation.
What is the treatment for severe hyperkalemia during ACLS?
Incorrect. Calcium gluconate stabilizes the cardiac membrane and reduces the risk of life-threatening arrhythmias caused by hyperkalemia.
Correct. Calcium gluconate stabilizes the cardiac membrane and reduces the risk of life-threatening arrhythmias caused by hyperkalemia.
What is the proper compression depth for high-quality CPR in adults?
Incorrect. Compressing the chest 2-2.4 inches ensures adequate blood flow while minimizing injury risks.
Correct. Compressing the chest 2-2.4 inches ensures adequate blood flow while minimizing injury risks.
What drug is used for torsades de pointes during ACLS?
Incorrect. Stabilizes the myocardial membrane and prevents arrhythmias.
Correct. Stabilizes the myocardial membrane and prevents arrhythmias.
During CPR with an advanced airway, chest compressions should continue uninterrupted.
Incorrect. With an advanced airway in place, compressions should continue uninterrupted while providing 10 breaths per minute.
Correct. With an advanced airway in place, compressions should continue uninterrupted while providing 10 breaths per minute.
The initial dose of adenosine for treating stable SVT in adults is 12 mg IV.
Incorrect. The initial dose of adenosine for stable SVT in adults is 6 mg IV, followed by 12 mg if needed for subsequent doses.
Correct. The initial dose of adenosine for stable SVT in adults is 6 mg IV, followed by 12 mg if needed for subsequent doses.
What is the maximum interval between defibrillation attempts during CPR?
Incorrect. Defibrillation attempts should be separated by 2-minute CPR cycles to ensure effective perfusion and rhythm evaluation.
Correct. Defibrillation attempts should be separated by 2-minute CPR cycles to ensure effective perfusion and rhythm evaluation.
What is the appropriate treatment for VF in cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm, and defibrillation is the most effective intervention to restore a normal rhythm.
Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm, and defibrillation is the most effective intervention to restore a normal rhythm.
The recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR without an advanced airway is 30:2.
Incorrect. A 30:2 ratio ensures sufficient oxygenation and circulation in adults during CPR without an advanced airway.
Correct. A 30:2 ratio ensures sufficient oxygenation and circulation in adults during CPR without an advanced airway.
Adenosine is the drug of choice for pulseless electrical activity (PEA).
Incorrect. PEA is not treated with adenosine; it is managed with CPR, epinephrine, and identifying and treating reversible causes.
Correct. PEA is not treated with adenosine; it is managed with CPR, epinephrine, and identifying and treating reversible causes.
The recommended oxygen saturation target during post-cardiac arrest care is 92-96%.
Incorrect. Maintaining oxygen saturation at 92-96% avoids hypoxia while preventing hyperoxia, which can cause further tissue damage.
Correct. Maintaining oxygen saturation at 92-96% avoids hypoxia while preventing hyperoxia, which can cause further tissue damage.
What is the correct dose of epinephrine for pediatric cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Epinephrine at 0.01 mg/kg is administered every 3-5 minutes during pediatric cardiac arrest to improve coronary perfusion.
Correct. Epinephrine at 0.01 mg/kg is administered every 3-5 minutes during pediatric cardiac arrest to improve coronary perfusion.
Which rhythm is not shockable?
Incorrect. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm treated with high-quality CPR and epinephrine.
Correct. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm treated with high-quality CPR and epinephrine.
Defibrillation should be attempted within 30 seconds for a witnessed VF arrest.
Incorrect. Prompt defibrillation within 30 seconds of witnessed VF arrest improves the chance of restoring a perfusing rhythm.
Correct. Prompt defibrillation within 30 seconds of witnessed VF arrest improves the chance of restoring a perfusing rhythm.
During advanced airway management, breaths should be delivered every 6-8 seconds.
Incorrect. Providing 6-8 breaths per minute prevents hyperventilation and maintains adequate oxygenation during CPR with an advanced airway.
Correct. Providing 6-8 breaths per minute prevents hyperventilation and maintains adequate oxygenation during CPR with an advanced airway.
What is the maximum dose of atropine for bradycardia?
Incorrect. Atropine doses should not exceed 3 mg during bradycardia management to avoid adverse effects.
Correct. Atropine doses should not exceed 3 mg during bradycardia management to avoid adverse effects.
What is the next action after ROSC is achieved?
Incorrect. Post-ROSC care focuses on maintaining oxygenation and avoiding hypoxia or hyperoxia to protect organ function.
Correct. Post-ROSC care focuses on maintaining oxygenation and avoiding hypoxia or hyperoxia to protect organ function.
What is the recommended energy setting for synchronized cardioversion in narrow, irregular tachycardia?
Incorrect. For unstable narrow, irregular tachycardias, synchronized cardioversion at 120-200 J is recommended.
Correct. For unstable narrow, irregular tachycardias, synchronized cardioversion at 120-200 J is recommended.
What is the recommended action for a choking infant who becomes unresponsive?
Incorrect. Chest compressions are performed to dislodge the obstruction and restore effective ventilation in an unresponsive infant.
Correct. Chest compressions are performed to dislodge the obstruction and restore effective ventilation in an unresponsive infant.
The initial dose of adenosine for narrow-complex SVT in adults is 6 mg IV.
Incorrect. Adenosine 6 mg is given as a rapid IV push for terminating narrow-complex SVT caused by reentrant pathways.
Correct. Adenosine 6 mg is given as a rapid IV push for terminating narrow-complex SVT caused by reentrant pathways.
Amiodarone and lidocaine are both used for refractory VF during cardiac arrest.
Incorrect. Amiodarone is preferred, but lidocaine is an alternative antiarrhythmic for refractory VF or pulseless VT.
Correct. Amiodarone is preferred, but lidocaine is an alternative antiarrhythmic for refractory VF or pulseless VT.
What is the target PETCO2 during high-quality CPR?
Incorrect. Indicates effective chest compressions and blood circulation during resuscitation.
Correct. Indicates effective chest compressions and blood circulation during resuscitation.
Hypokalemia is included in the "H's" of reversible cardiac arrest causes.
Incorrect. Hypokalemia can cause cardiac arrhythmias and is included in the "H's" of reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
Correct. Hypokalemia can cause cardiac arrhythmias and is included in the "H's" of reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
PETCO2 levels >10 mmHg during CPR indicate high-quality chest compressions.
Incorrect. PETCO2 levels greater than 10 mmHg suggest that chest compressions are generating adequate circulation.
Correct. PETCO2 levels greater than 10 mmHg suggest that chest compressions are generating adequate circulation.
What is the dose of adenosine for stable SVT?
Incorrect. Administered via rapid IV push, followed by a saline flush to terminate reentrant arrhythmias.
Correct. Administered via rapid IV push, followed by a saline flush to terminate reentrant arrhythmias.
How should chest compressions be performed on a patient with an advanced airway?
Incorrect. Continuous chest compressions are performed while ventilations are delivered every 6 seconds when an advanced airway is in place.
Correct. Continuous chest compressions are performed while ventilations are delivered every 6 seconds when an advanced airway is in place.
What is the appropriate rate of chest compressions for pediatric CPR?
Incorrect. A rate of 100-120 compressions per minute ensures adequate circulation in pediatric patients.
Correct. A rate of 100-120 compressions per minute ensures adequate circulation in pediatric patients.
What is the recommended treatment for unstable tachycardia?
Incorrect. Prevents progression to cardiac arrest by restoring a normal rhythm.
Correct. Prevents progression to cardiac arrest by restoring a normal rhythm.
Magnesium sulfate is the treatment of choice for torsades de pointes.
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the myocardium and is the first-line treatment for torsades de pointes.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the myocardium and is the first-line treatment for torsades de pointes.
How should you treat VF if it persists after 3 shocks?
Incorrect. Epinephrine is given to improve perfusion pressure and increase the chance of ROSC in persistent VF.
Correct. Epinephrine is given to improve perfusion pressure and increase the chance of ROSC in persistent VF.
What is the treatment for unstable atrial fibrillation?
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion is used to restore a normal rhythm in unstable atrial fibrillation.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion is used to restore a normal rhythm in unstable atrial fibrillation.
What is the recommended initial dose of adenosine for adults?
Incorrect. Adenosine is administered as a 6 mg rapid IV push, followed by a saline flush, to terminate reentrant arrhythmias.
Correct. Adenosine is administered as a 6 mg rapid IV push, followed by a saline flush, to terminate reentrant arrhythmias.
What is the target oxygen saturation during post-cardiac arrest care?
Incorrect. Oxygen saturation should be maintained at 92-96% to avoid hypoxia and reduce the risk of hyperoxia and oxidative stress.
Correct. Oxygen saturation should be maintained at 92-96% to avoid hypoxia and reduce the risk of hyperoxia and oxidative stress.
What is the recommended action after ROSC is achieved?
Incorrect. Oxygenation and ventilation should be optimized to avoid hypoxia or hyperoxia during post-cardiac arrest care.
Correct. Oxygenation and ventilation should be optimized to avoid hypoxia or hyperoxia during post-cardiac arrest care.
A compression-to-ventilation ratio of 15:2 is recommended for two-rescuer pediatric CPR.
Incorrect. A 15:2 ratio ensures efficient oxygenation and circulation in pediatric patients during two-rescuer CPR.
Correct. A 15:2 ratio ensures efficient oxygenation and circulation in pediatric patients during two-rescuer CPR.
Epinephrine is administered every 5-10 minutes during cardiac arrest.
Incorrect. Epinephrine is administered every 3-5 minutes during cardiac arrest to maximize coronary and cerebral perfusion.
Correct. Epinephrine is administered every 3-5 minutes during cardiac arrest to maximize coronary and cerebral perfusion.
What is the dose of epinephrine for adult cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Epinephrine at 1 mg IV every 3-5 minutes is used to enhance perfusion during cardiac arrest.
Correct. Epinephrine at 1 mg IV every 3-5 minutes is used to enhance perfusion during cardiac arrest.
What is the initial treatment for pulseless electrical activity (PEA)?
Incorrect. CPR is the primary treatment for PEA, along with epinephrine and addressing reversible causes to restore circulation.
Correct. CPR is the primary treatment for PEA, along with epinephrine and addressing reversible causes to restore circulation.
How often should rhythm checks occur during ongoing CPR?
Incorrect. Rhythm checks are performed every 2 minutes to evaluate for shockable rhythms and assess the effectiveness of interventions.
Correct. Rhythm checks are performed every 2 minutes to evaluate for shockable rhythms and assess the effectiveness of interventions.
What is the preferred alternative route if IV access is not available?
Incorrect. IO access provides a reliable alternative for rapid drug delivery during resuscitation when IV access cannot be obtained.
Correct. IO access provides a reliable alternative for rapid drug delivery during resuscitation when IV access cannot be obtained.
What is the recommended energy dose for defibrillation in adults using a biphasic defibrillator?
Incorrect. Biphasic defibrillators deliver effective shocks within the range of 120-200 J, restoring organized electrical activity.
Correct. Biphasic defibrillators deliver effective shocks within the range of 120-200 J, restoring organized electrical activity.
Chest compressions should be started immediately for a patient in asystole.
Incorrect. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring immediate high-quality CPR and epinephrine to optimize perfusion.
Correct. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring immediate high-quality CPR and epinephrine to optimize perfusion.
ROSC should be followed by immediate reassessment of the patient’s rhythm and ventilation.
Incorrect. Following ROSC, immediate reassessment ensures stability of the patient’s rhythm, oxygenation, and ventilation.
Correct. Following ROSC, immediate reassessment ensures stability of the patient’s rhythm, oxygenation, and ventilation.
Hypovolemia is one of the reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
Incorrect. Hypovolemia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest that can be treated with fluid resuscitation to restore circulation.
Correct. Hypovolemia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest that can be treated with fluid resuscitation to restore circulation.
What is the recommended initial dose of amiodarone for VF?
Incorrect. Amiodarone is administered as a 300 mg IV/IO bolus for refractory VF or pulseless VT.
Correct. Amiodarone is administered as a 300 mg IV/IO bolus for refractory VF or pulseless VT.
The maximum dose of atropine for bradycardia is 3 mg.
Incorrect. Atropine is given at a dose of 0.5 mg every 3-5 minutes during bradycardia, up to a maximum dose of 3 mg.
Correct. Atropine is given at a dose of 0.5 mg every 3-5 minutes during bradycardia, up to a maximum dose of 3 mg.
High-quality CPR requires a compression fraction of >80%.
Incorrect. A compression fraction >80% ensures that the majority of CPR time is spent delivering chest compressions to improve outcomes.
Correct. A compression fraction >80% ensures that the majority of CPR time is spent delivering chest compressions to improve outcomes.
What is the recommended treatment for tension pneumothorax?
Incorrect. Needle decompression relieves pressure caused by tension pneumothorax, improving ventilation and circulation.
Correct. Needle decompression relieves pressure caused by tension pneumothorax, improving ventilation and circulation.
How should you confirm the placement of an endotracheal tube?
Incorrect. Waveform capnography ensures proper ET tube placement by continuously monitoring exhaled CO? levels.
Correct. Waveform capnography ensures proper ET tube placement by continuously monitoring exhaled CO? levels.
What is the treatment for symptomatic bradycardia unresponsive to atropine?
Incorrect. Provides external electrical stimuli to maintain adequate heart rate when atropine fails.
Correct. Provides external electrical stimuli to maintain adequate heart rate when atropine fails.
What is the appropriate action for a patient with PEA?
Incorrect. PEA is treated with epinephrine and high-quality CPR to address underlying reversible causes.
Correct. PEA is treated with epinephrine and high-quality CPR to address underlying reversible causes.
What is the recommended first action for an unresponsive infant?
Incorrect. Calling for help ensures timely assistance and access to advanced resuscitation equipment.
Correct. Calling for help ensures timely assistance and access to advanced resuscitation equipment.
Defibrillation should always be performed within 10 minutes of identifying VF.
Incorrect. Defibrillation should be performed immediately after identifying VF, not delayed up to 10 minutes.
Correct. Defibrillation should be performed immediately after identifying VF, not delayed up to 10 minutes.
What is the purpose of targeted temperature management (TTM)?
Incorrect. TTM prevents further neurological injury by maintaining a controlled core temperature after ROSC.
Correct. TTM prevents further neurological injury by maintaining a controlled core temperature after ROSC.
What is the preferred route for drug administration during ACLS?
Incorrect. IV access is preferred for rapid administration; IO is the alternative if IV access is unavailable.
Correct. IV access is preferred for rapid administration; IO is the alternative if IV access is unavailable.
What is the most reliable indicator of effective CPR?
Incorrect. A PETCO2 reading above 10 mmHg indicates adequate chest compressions and cardiac output during CPR.
Correct. A PETCO2 reading above 10 mmHg indicates adequate chest compressions and cardiac output during CPR.
Which rhythm is characterized by a sawtooth atrial pattern?
Incorrect. Atrial flutter presents as a sawtooth pattern on the ECG and requires rate control or cardioversion depending on stability.
Correct. Atrial flutter presents as a sawtooth pattern on the ECG and requires rate control or cardioversion depending on stability.
