Congratulations on completing FirstAidWebโs ACLS Provider Certification Course! Youโve invested the time, effort, and commitmentโnow itโs time to secure your certification.
This exam isnโt meant to trick you. Itโs designed to confirm your understanding of the material. Take a breath, get focused, and review the key details below before you begin.
What is the target oxygen saturation during CPR?
Incorrect. Maintaining oxygen saturation within this range ensures adequate oxygenation without the risk of hyperoxia.
Correct. Maintaining oxygen saturation within this range ensures adequate oxygenation without the risk of hyperoxia.
How often should you reassess pulse during CPR?
Incorrect. Pulse checks are performed every 2 minutes during rhythm assessments to evaluate the effectiveness of resuscitation.
Correct. Pulse checks are performed every 2 minutes during rhythm assessments to evaluate the effectiveness of resuscitation.
What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR without an advanced airway?
Incorrect. A 30:2 ratio ensures adequate oxygenation and circulation when no advanced airway is present.
Correct. A 30:2 ratio ensures adequate oxygenation and circulation when no advanced airway is present.
What is the most common cause of PEA?
Incorrect. Hypoxia is the most frequent reversible cause of PEA and should be addressed immediately with oxygenation and ventilation.
Correct. Hypoxia is the most frequent reversible cause of PEA and should be addressed immediately with oxygenation and ventilation.
What is the preferred alternative route if IV access is not available?
Incorrect. IO access provides a reliable alternative for rapid drug delivery during resuscitation when IV access cannot be obtained.
Correct. IO access provides a reliable alternative for rapid drug delivery during resuscitation when IV access cannot be obtained.
The correct defibrillation dose for adults using a biphasic defibrillator is 120-200 J.
Incorrect. Biphasic defibrillation begins at 120-200 J to terminate shockable rhythms like VF and pulseless VT effectively.
Correct. Biphasic defibrillation begins at 120-200 J to terminate shockable rhythms like VF and pulseless VT effectively.
Hypokalemia is included in the "H's" of reversible cardiac arrest causes.
Incorrect. Hypokalemia can cause cardiac arrhythmias and is included in the "H's" of reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
Correct. Hypokalemia can cause cardiac arrhythmias and is included in the "H's" of reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
What is the appropriate action if PEA is identified?
Incorrect. PEA is treated with CPR, epinephrine, and identifying reversible causes to restore organized electrical activity.
Correct. PEA is treated with CPR, epinephrine, and identifying reversible causes to restore organized electrical activity.
Chest compressions should be paused for at least 15 seconds to deliver a shock.
Incorrect. Chest compressions should be paused for less than 10 seconds to minimize interruptions during CPR when delivering a shock.
Correct. Chest compressions should be paused for less than 10 seconds to minimize interruptions during CPR when delivering a shock.
What is the goal compression fraction for high-quality CPR?
Incorrect. A compression fraction above 80% ensures that most of the resuscitation time is spent performing chest compressions.
Correct. A compression fraction above 80% ensures that most of the resuscitation time is spent performing chest compressions.
Asystole is a shockable rhythm during cardiac arrest.
Incorrect. Asystole is not a shockable rhythm; it is treated with high-quality CPR and epinephrine.
Correct. Asystole is not a shockable rhythm; it is treated with high-quality CPR and epinephrine.
Ventricular fibrillation is a non-shockable rhythm.
Incorrect. Ventricular fibrillation (VF) is a shockable rhythm and requires immediate defibrillation to restore an organized rhythm.
Correct. Ventricular fibrillation (VF) is a shockable rhythm and requires immediate defibrillation to restore an organized rhythm.
Which drug is used for narrow-complex SVT?
Incorrect. Adenosine is the first-line drug for treating narrow-complex SVT by slowing conduction through the AV node.
Correct. Adenosine is the first-line drug for treating narrow-complex SVT by slowing conduction through the AV node.
What is the recommended action for a choking infant who becomes unresponsive?
Incorrect. Chest compressions are performed to dislodge the obstruction and restore effective ventilation in an unresponsive infant.
Correct. Chest compressions are performed to dislodge the obstruction and restore effective ventilation in an unresponsive infant.
Magnesium sulfate is used to treat torsades de pointes.
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes cardiac myocytes and is the drug of choice for treating torsades de pointes.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes cardiac myocytes and is the drug of choice for treating torsades de pointes.
Which rhythm requires immediate defibrillation?
Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm that requires immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm that requires immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
Atropine is used to treat pulseless ventricular tachycardia.
Incorrect. Pulseless VT is treated with defibrillation, not atropine. Atropine is used for symptomatic bradycardia.
Correct. Pulseless VT is treated with defibrillation, not atropine. Atropine is used for symptomatic bradycardia.
Synchronized cardioversion is indicated for unstable ventricular tachycardia with a pulse.
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion restores organized cardiac activity in unstable VT with a pulse, preventing progression to VF.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion restores organized cardiac activity in unstable VT with a pulse, preventing progression to VF.
What is the recommended ventilation rate during CPR for adults with an advanced airway?
Incorrect. Delivering 6-8 breaths per minute minimizes interruptions in chest compressions and prevents hyperventilation.
Correct. Delivering 6-8 breaths per minute minimizes interruptions in chest compressions and prevents hyperventilation.
What is the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio for infants with two rescuers?
Incorrect. The 15:2 ratio improves oxygenation and circulation during high-quality infant CPR performed by two rescuers.
Correct. The 15:2 ratio improves oxygenation and circulation during high-quality infant CPR performed by two rescuers.
What is the most reliable indicator of effective chest compressions?
Incorrect. PETCO2 values greater than 10 mmHg during CPR indicate adequate chest compressions and blood circulation.
Correct. PETCO2 values greater than 10 mmHg during CPR indicate adequate chest compressions and blood circulation.
What is the first-line drug for narrow-complex SVT?
Incorrect. Adenosine is used to terminate reentrant arrhythmias in narrow-complex SVT by slowing conduction through the AV node.
Correct. Adenosine is used to terminate reentrant arrhythmias in narrow-complex SVT by slowing conduction through the AV node.
What is the dose of epinephrine for adult cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Epinephrine is given at a dose of 1 mg IV/IO every 3-5 minutes during adult cardiac arrest to improve perfusion.
Correct. Epinephrine is given at a dose of 1 mg IV/IO every 3-5 minutes during adult cardiac arrest to improve perfusion.
What is the maximum dose of atropine for adult bradycardia?
Incorrect. Atropine should not exceed a total dose of 3 mg when treating symptomatic bradycardia in adults.
Correct. Atropine should not exceed a total dose of 3 mg when treating symptomatic bradycardia in adults.
What is the appropriate interval for rhythm checks during CPR?
Incorrect. Rhythm checks are performed every 2 minutes to evaluate for shockable rhythms and assess the need for defibrillation.
Correct. Rhythm checks are performed every 2 minutes to evaluate for shockable rhythms and assess the need for defibrillation.
What is the first drug given for VF or pulseless VT?
Incorrect. Epinephrine is administered after defibrillation to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion during resuscitation.
Correct. Epinephrine is administered after defibrillation to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion during resuscitation.
Chest compressions should be performed at a rate of 80-100 compressions per minute.
Incorrect. The recommended rate for chest compressions is 100-120 compressions per minute to maximize perfusion.
Correct. The recommended rate for chest compressions is 100-120 compressions per minute to maximize perfusion.
What is the preferred route for drug administration during ACLS?
Incorrect. IV access is preferred for rapid administration; IO is the alternative if IV access is unavailable.
Correct. IV access is preferred for rapid administration; IO is the alternative if IV access is unavailable.
The maximum dose of atropine for bradycardia is 3 mg.
Incorrect. Atropine is given at a dose of 0.5 mg every 3-5 minutes during bradycardia, up to a maximum dose of 3 mg.
Correct. Atropine is given at a dose of 0.5 mg every 3-5 minutes during bradycardia, up to a maximum dose of 3 mg.
A compression-to-ventilation ratio of 15:2 is recommended for two-rescuer pediatric CPR.
Incorrect. A 15:2 ratio ensures efficient oxygenation and circulation in pediatric patients during two-rescuer CPR.
Correct. A 15:2 ratio ensures efficient oxygenation and circulation in pediatric patients during two-rescuer CPR.
Incorrect. Epinephrine at 1 mg IV every 3-5 minutes is used to enhance perfusion during cardiac arrest.
Correct. Epinephrine at 1 mg IV every 3-5 minutes is used to enhance perfusion during cardiac arrest.
Chest compressions should be started immediately for a patient in asystole.
Incorrect. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring immediate high-quality CPR and epinephrine to optimize perfusion.
Correct. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring immediate high-quality CPR and epinephrine to optimize perfusion.
Which drug can increase the heart rate in symptomatic bradycardia?
Incorrect. Atropine blocks vagal stimulation, increasing heart rate in cases of symptomatic bradycardia.
Correct. Atropine blocks vagal stimulation, increasing heart rate in cases of symptomatic bradycardia.
Which rhythm is characterized by a sawtooth atrial pattern?
Incorrect. Atrial flutter presents as a sawtooth pattern on the ECG and requires rate control or cardioversion depending on stability.
Correct. Atrial flutter presents as a sawtooth pattern on the ECG and requires rate control or cardioversion depending on stability.
How should an unconscious patient with a suspected spinal injury be positioned?
Incorrect. The jaw thrust maneuver opens the airway without moving the cervical spine, reducing the risk of spinal injury.
Correct. The jaw thrust maneuver opens the airway without moving the cervical spine, reducing the risk of spinal injury.
Hypothermia is part of the "H's" for reversible cardiac arrest causes.
Incorrect. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be treated with warming measures.
Correct. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be treated with warming measures.
What is the target PETCO2 during high-quality CPR?
Incorrect. PETCO2 readings above 10 mmHg during CPR indicate adequate chest compressions and cardiac output.
Correct. PETCO2 readings above 10 mmHg during CPR indicate adequate chest compressions and cardiac output.
What is the initial treatment for symptomatic bradycardia?
Incorrect. Atropine is the first-line drug for symptomatic bradycardia, increasing heart rate by blocking vagal stimulation.
Correct. Atropine is the first-line drug for symptomatic bradycardia, increasing heart rate by blocking vagal stimulation.
What is the dose of atropine for bradycardia?
Incorrect. First-line treatment to block vagal stimulation and increase heart rate.
Correct. First-line treatment to block vagal stimulation and increase heart rate.
How soon should defibrillation be performed in witnessed VF?
Incorrect. Rapid defibrillation within 1 minute of witnessed VF increases the likelihood of survival and ROSC.
Correct. Rapid defibrillation within 1 minute of witnessed VF increases the likelihood of survival and ROSC.
What rhythm requires immediate defibrillation?
Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
Which rhythm requires defibrillation?
Incorrect. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm that requires immediate defibrillation to restore a perfusing rhythm.
Correct. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm that requires immediate defibrillation to restore a perfusing rhythm.
Defibrillation is the treatment of choice for pulseless electrical activity.
Incorrect. PEA is not a shockable rhythm; it is treated with CPR and addressing reversible causes such as hypoxia or hypovolemia.
Correct. PEA is not a shockable rhythm; it is treated with CPR and addressing reversible causes such as hypoxia or hypovolemia.
The recommended compression rate for CPR is 90-100 compressions per minute.
Incorrect. The correct compression rate for CPR is 100-120 compressions per minute to optimize perfusion and prevent fatigue.
Correct. The correct compression rate for CPR is 100-120 compressions per minute to optimize perfusion and prevent fatigue.
Synchronized cardioversion is used for unstable atrial fibrillation.
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion is indicated for unstable atrial fibrillation to restore sinus rhythm and prevent hemodynamic collapse.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion is indicated for unstable atrial fibrillation to restore sinus rhythm and prevent hemodynamic collapse.
Which condition is included in the "T's" of reversible cardiac arrest causes?
Incorrect. Thrombosis (pulmonary or coronary) is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be addressed immediately.
Correct. Thrombosis (pulmonary or coronary) is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be addressed immediately.
What is the preferred method for confirming endotracheal tube placement?
Incorrect. The most reliable method to confirm and monitor placement by measuring exhaled CO?.
Correct. The most reliable method to confirm and monitor placement by measuring exhaled CO?.
What is the correct defibrillation dose for adults in VF?
Incorrect. For biphasic defibrillators, 120-200 J is the recommended energy range for VF.
Correct. For biphasic defibrillators, 120-200 J is the recommended energy range for VF.
Pulseless electrical activity (PEA) is treated with defibrillation.
Incorrect. PEA is not a shockable rhythm; it is managed with high-quality CPR and addressing the underlying reversible causes.
Correct. PEA is not a shockable rhythm; it is managed with high-quality CPR and addressing the underlying reversible causes.
Defibrillation should be delayed until after administering epinephrine in ventricular fibrillation.
Incorrect. Defibrillation is the priority for VF and should not be delayed for drug administration, as it is the definitive treatment.
Correct. Defibrillation is the priority for VF and should not be delayed for drug administration, as it is the definitive treatment.
Magnesium sulfate is the treatment of choice for torsades de pointes.
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the myocardium and is the first-line treatment for torsades de pointes.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the myocardium and is the first-line treatment for torsades de pointes.
How should chest compressions be performed on a patient with an advanced airway?
Incorrect. Continuous chest compressions are performed while ventilations are delivered every 6 seconds when an advanced airway is in place.
Correct. Continuous chest compressions are performed while ventilations are delivered every 6 seconds when an advanced airway is in place.
What is the appropriate dose of lidocaine for refractory VF?
Incorrect. Lidocaine is an alternative antiarrhythmic for refractory VF, dosed at 1 mg/kg IV/IO.
Correct. Lidocaine is an alternative antiarrhythmic for refractory VF, dosed at 1 mg/kg IV/IO.
What is the maximum pause allowed for chest compressions during CPR?
Incorrect. Interruptions in chest compressions should be minimized to less than 10 seconds to maintain adequate perfusion.
Correct. Interruptions in chest compressions should be minimized to less than 10 seconds to maintain adequate perfusion.
What is the recommended dose of adenosine for treating stable SVT in adults?
Incorrect. Adenosine is administered as a rapid IV push at an initial dose of 6 mg to terminate stable SVT.
Correct. Adenosine is administered as a rapid IV push at an initial dose of 6 mg to terminate stable SVT.
What is the primary intervention for symptomatic bradycardia?
Incorrect. Atropine is the first-line treatment for symptomatic bradycardia, increasing the heart rate by blocking vagal stimulation.
Correct. Atropine is the first-line treatment for symptomatic bradycardia, increasing the heart rate by blocking vagal stimulation.
What is the preferred initial action for pulseless electrical activity?
Incorrect. High-quality CPR is the primary intervention for PEA, followed by epinephrine administration and addressing reversible causes.
Correct. High-quality CPR is the primary intervention for PEA, followed by epinephrine administration and addressing reversible causes.
Which rhythm is shockable in cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
Correct. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
What is the initial dose of adenosine for pediatric SVT?
Incorrect. Adenosine is administered as a 0.1 mg/kg rapid IV push for pediatric SVT, followed by a saline flush.
Correct. Adenosine is administered as a 0.1 mg/kg rapid IV push for pediatric SVT, followed by a saline flush.
What is the recommended treatment for unstable tachycardia?
Incorrect. Prevents progression to cardiac arrest by restoring a normal rhythm.
Correct. Prevents progression to cardiac arrest by restoring a normal rhythm.
What is the recommended maximum interval for chest compression interruptions?
Incorrect. Minimizing interruptions to less than 10 seconds preserves perfusion and improves resuscitation outcomes.
Correct. Minimizing interruptions to less than 10 seconds preserves perfusion and improves resuscitation outcomes.
How soon should defibrillation be delivered for VF/VT?
Incorrect. Early defibrillation is critical for survival, especially in shockable rhythms like VF/VT.
Correct. Early defibrillation is critical for survival, especially in shockable rhythms like VF/VT.
Synchronized cardioversion is the treatment of choice for unstable atrial fibrillation.
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion is used for unstable atrial fibrillation to restore organized electrical activity.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion is used for unstable atrial fibrillation to restore organized electrical activity.
PETCO2 monitoring is used to confirm effective ventilation and chest compressions.
Incorrect. PETCO2 monitoring helps assess the effectiveness of both ventilation and chest compressions in real-time during CPR.
Correct. PETCO2 monitoring helps assess the effectiveness of both ventilation and chest compressions in real-time during CPR.
What is the proper compression depth for high-quality CPR in adults?
Incorrect. Compressing the chest 2-2.4 inches ensures adequate blood flow while minimizing injury risks.
Correct. Compressing the chest 2-2.4 inches ensures adequate blood flow while minimizing injury risks.
