Congratulations on completing FirstAidWeb’s ACLS Provider Certification Course! You’ve invested the time, effort, and commitment—now it’s time to secure your certification.
This exam isn’t meant to trick you. It’s designed to confirm your understanding of the material. Take a breath, get focused, and review the key details below before you begin.
Magnesium sulfate is the treatment of choice for torsades de pointes.
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the myocardium and is the first-line treatment for torsades de pointes.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the myocardium and is the first-line treatment for torsades de pointes.
What is the maximum dose of atropine for bradycardia?
Incorrect. Atropine doses should not exceed 3 mg during bradycardia management to avoid adverse effects.
Correct. Atropine doses should not exceed 3 mg during bradycardia management to avoid adverse effects.
Which rhythm requires defibrillation?
Incorrect. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm that requires immediate defibrillation to restore a perfusing rhythm.
Correct. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm that requires immediate defibrillation to restore a perfusing rhythm.
What is the purpose of targeted temperature management (TTM)?
Incorrect. TTM prevents further neurological injury by maintaining a controlled core temperature after ROSC.
Correct. TTM prevents further neurological injury by maintaining a controlled core temperature after ROSC.
What is the maximum energy dose for defibrillation in adults?
Incorrect. Maximum energy for monophasic defibrillators; for biphasic, follow manufacturer recommendations.
Correct. Maximum energy for monophasic defibrillators; for biphasic, follow manufacturer recommendations.
During CPR, rescuers should rotate roles every 5 minutes to reduce fatigue.
Incorrect. Rescuers should switch roles every 2 minutes to maintain high-quality chest compressions and prevent fatigue.
Correct. Rescuers should switch roles every 2 minutes to maintain high-quality chest compressions and prevent fatigue.
What is the treatment for severe hyperkalemia during ACLS?
Incorrect. Calcium gluconate stabilizes the cardiac membrane and reduces the risk of life-threatening arrhythmias caused by hyperkalemia.
Correct. Calcium gluconate stabilizes the cardiac membrane and reduces the risk of life-threatening arrhythmias caused by hyperkalemia.
The initial dose of amiodarone for refractory VF is 300 mg IV/IO.
Incorrect. Amiodarone 300 mg IV/IO is administered after defibrillation and epinephrine to treat refractory VF or pulseless VT.
Correct. Amiodarone 300 mg IV/IO is administered after defibrillation and epinephrine to treat refractory VF or pulseless VT.
Which rhythm requires immediate defibrillation?
Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm that requires immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm that requires immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
What is the drug of choice for stable wide-complex tachycardia?
Incorrect. Amiodarone is used to stabilize wide-complex tachycardias in stable patients to prevent deterioration into cardiac arrest.
Correct. Amiodarone is used to stabilize wide-complex tachycardias in stable patients to prevent deterioration into cardiac arrest.
What is the primary focus during the first 10 minutes of post-cardiac arrest care?
Incorrect. Early stabilization of blood pressure and oxygenation is critical to preventing further cardiac arrest after ROSC.
Correct. Early stabilization of blood pressure and oxygenation is critical to preventing further cardiac arrest after ROSC.
The maximum dose of atropine for bradycardia is 5 mg.
Incorrect. The maximum dose of atropine for bradycardia is 3 mg, with doses given at 0.5 mg intervals every 3-5 minutes.
Correct. The maximum dose of atropine for bradycardia is 3 mg, with doses given at 0.5 mg intervals every 3-5 minutes.
Magnesium sulfate is the first-line drug for ventricular fibrillation.
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate is used to treat torsades de pointes but is not the first-line drug for VF, where epinephrine is prioritized.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate is used to treat torsades de pointes but is not the first-line drug for VF, where epinephrine is prioritized.
How often should chest compressors switch roles to avoid fatigue?
Incorrect. Switching compressors every 2 minutes reduces rescuer fatigue, ensuring high-quality chest compressions are maintained.
Correct. Switching compressors every 2 minutes reduces rescuer fatigue, ensuring high-quality chest compressions are maintained.
Which rhythm is characterized by a sawtooth atrial pattern?
Incorrect. Atrial flutter presents as a sawtooth pattern on the ECG and requires rate control or cardioversion depending on stability.
Correct. Atrial flutter presents as a sawtooth pattern on the ECG and requires rate control or cardioversion depending on stability.
How often should epinephrine be administered during cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Maintains vasoconstriction, improving blood flow to vital organs during resuscitation.
Correct. Maintains vasoconstriction, improving blood flow to vital organs during resuscitation.
What is the recommended action for a choking infant who becomes unresponsive?
Incorrect. Chest compressions are performed to dislodge the obstruction and restore effective ventilation in an unresponsive infant.
Correct. Chest compressions are performed to dislodge the obstruction and restore effective ventilation in an unresponsive infant.
What is the next step after identifying a shockable rhythm?
Incorrect. Delivers an electrical shock to depolarize the heart and restore a normal rhythm.
Correct. Delivers an electrical shock to depolarize the heart and restore a normal rhythm.
The compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR without an advanced airway is 15:2.
Incorrect. The correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR without an advanced airway is 30:2.
Correct. The correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR without an advanced airway is 30:2.
During CPR with an advanced airway, chest compressions should continue uninterrupted.
Incorrect. With an advanced airway in place, compressions should continue uninterrupted while providing 10 breaths per minute.
Correct. With an advanced airway in place, compressions should continue uninterrupted while providing 10 breaths per minute.
What is the recommended duration of a pulse check in cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Pulse checks should be limited to 10 seconds to minimize interruptions in chest compressions.
Correct. Pulse checks should be limited to 10 seconds to minimize interruptions in chest compressions.
What is the recommended initial dose of adenosine for adults?
Incorrect. Adenosine is administered as a 6 mg rapid IV push, followed by a saline flush, to terminate reentrant arrhythmias.
Correct. Adenosine is administered as a 6 mg rapid IV push, followed by a saline flush, to terminate reentrant arrhythmias.
What is the recommended maximum interval for chest compression interruptions?
Incorrect. Minimizing interruptions to less than 10 seconds preserves perfusion and improves resuscitation outcomes.
Correct. Minimizing interruptions to less than 10 seconds preserves perfusion and improves resuscitation outcomes.
What is the recommended oxygen saturation target during ROSC?
Incorrect. Reduces the risk of oxidative stress and worsened outcomes by preventing hyperoxia.
Correct. Reduces the risk of oxidative stress and worsened outcomes by preventing hyperoxia.
Naloxone is used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression.
Incorrect. Naloxone blocks opioid receptors and is administered to reverse opioid overdose and restore adequate respiration.
Correct. Naloxone blocks opioid receptors and is administered to reverse opioid overdose and restore adequate respiration.
What is the best method to monitor the quality of CPR?
Incorrect. PETCO2 monitoring provides real-time feedback on chest compressions and the effectiveness of CPR.
Correct. PETCO2 monitoring provides real-time feedback on chest compressions and the effectiveness of CPR.
How often should rescuers switch roles during CPR?
Incorrect. Rescuers should switch every 2 minutes to prevent fatigue and ensure high-quality compressions are maintained.
Correct. Rescuers should switch every 2 minutes to prevent fatigue and ensure high-quality compressions are maintained.
Lidocaine is the first-line drug for ventricular fibrillation.
Incorrect. Epinephrine is the first-line drug for VF, with amiodarone as the preferred antiarrhythmic for refractory cases.
Correct. Epinephrine is the first-line drug for VF, with amiodarone as the preferred antiarrhythmic for refractory cases.
Chest compressions should be performed at a rate of 80-100 compressions per minute.
Incorrect. The recommended rate for chest compressions is 100-120 compressions per minute to maximize perfusion.
Correct. The recommended rate for chest compressions is 100-120 compressions per minute to maximize perfusion.
How should compressions be performed for an infant during CPR?
Incorrect. The two-thumb encircling technique provides high-quality compressions for infants during CPR.
Correct. The two-thumb encircling technique provides high-quality compressions for infants during CPR.
How often should rhythm checks occur during ongoing CPR?
Incorrect. Rhythm checks should be performed every 2 minutes, coinciding with rescuer role switches, to evaluate for shockable rhythms.
Correct. Rhythm checks should be performed every 2 minutes, coinciding with rescuer role switches, to evaluate for shockable rhythms.
Amiodarone is the first-line drug for treating ventricular fibrillation.
Incorrect. Epinephrine is given first in VF during cardiac arrest, followed by amiodarone as an antiarrhythmic after defibrillation attempts.
Correct. Epinephrine is given first in VF during cardiac arrest, followed by amiodarone as an antiarrhythmic after defibrillation attempts.
What is the drug of choice for wide-complex tachycardia in stable patients?
Incorrect. Amiodarone is the preferred antiarrhythmic for stabilizing wide-complex tachycardia in stable patients.
Correct. Amiodarone is the preferred antiarrhythmic for stabilizing wide-complex tachycardia in stable patients.
What is the proper treatment for pulseless ventricular tachycardia?
Incorrect. Defibrillation is the primary treatment for pulseless VT, aiming to restore organized cardiac activity.
Correct. Defibrillation is the primary treatment for pulseless VT, aiming to restore organized cardiac activity.
What is the recommended initial dose of amiodarone for VF?
Incorrect. Amiodarone is administered as a 300 mg IV/IO bolus for refractory VF or pulseless VT.
Correct. Amiodarone is administered as a 300 mg IV/IO bolus for refractory VF or pulseless VT.
What is the most reliable indicator of effective chest compressions?
Incorrect. PETCO2 values greater than 10 mmHg during CPR indicate adequate chest compressions and blood circulation.
Correct. PETCO2 values greater than 10 mmHg during CPR indicate adequate chest compressions and blood circulation.
What is the recommended initial dose of amiodarone in cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Amiodarone stabilizes the myocardium and is given as a bolus for refractory VF or pulseless VT.
Correct. Amiodarone stabilizes the myocardium and is given as a bolus for refractory VF or pulseless VT.
Hypovolemia is a common cause of pulseless electrical activity (PEA).
Incorrect. Hypovolemia is a reversible cause of PEA and can be treated with rapid fluid resuscitation.
Correct. Hypovolemia is a reversible cause of PEA and can be treated with rapid fluid resuscitation.
Which of the following is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and must be corrected to restore spontaneous circulation.
Correct. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and must be corrected to restore spontaneous circulation.
How should you confirm the placement of an endotracheal tube?
Incorrect. Waveform capnography ensures proper ET tube placement by continuously monitoring exhaled CO? levels.
Correct. Waveform capnography ensures proper ET tube placement by continuously monitoring exhaled CO? levels.
Synchronized cardioversion is indicated for unstable ventricular tachycardia with a pulse.
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion restores organized cardiac activity in unstable VT with a pulse, preventing progression to VF.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion restores organized cardiac activity in unstable VT with a pulse, preventing progression to VF.
The appropriate initial dose of amiodarone for pulseless VT is 150 mg IV/IO.
Incorrect. The correct initial dose of amiodarone for pulseless VT is 300 mg IV/IO, followed by 150 mg for a second dose if needed.
Correct. The correct initial dose of amiodarone for pulseless VT is 300 mg IV/IO, followed by 150 mg for a second dose if needed.
Epinephrine is administered every 5-10 minutes during cardiac arrest.
Incorrect. Epinephrine is administered every 3-5 minutes during cardiac arrest to maximize coronary and cerebral perfusion.
Correct. Epinephrine is administered every 3-5 minutes during cardiac arrest to maximize coronary and cerebral perfusion.
What is the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio during CPR?
Incorrect. For adult CPR, the ratio ensures adequate perfusion and oxygenation when no advanced airway is in place.
Correct. For adult CPR, the ratio ensures adequate perfusion and oxygenation when no advanced airway is in place.
What is the initial dose of epinephrine during cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Administered every 3-5 minutes to restore circulation by increasing coronary and cerebral perfusion pressure.
Correct. Administered every 3-5 minutes to restore circulation by increasing coronary and cerebral perfusion pressure.
The compression-to-ventilation ratio for two-rescuer pediatric CPR is 15:2.
Incorrect. A 15:2 ratio ensures optimal oxygenation and circulation during two-rescuer CPR in pediatric patients.
Correct. A 15:2 ratio ensures optimal oxygenation and circulation during two-rescuer CPR in pediatric patients.
What is the compression rate for pediatric CPR?
Incorrect. The same compression rate as adults ensures adequate perfusion in pediatric patients during CPR.
Correct. The same compression rate as adults ensures adequate perfusion in pediatric patients during CPR.
Hypothermia is one of the "H's" in the reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
Incorrect. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and is treated by warming the patient to improve outcomes.
Correct. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and is treated by warming the patient to improve outcomes.
The recommended defibrillation dose for pediatric VF arrest is 4 J/kg.
Incorrect. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg and may increase to 4 J/kg for subsequent shocks if VF persists.
Correct. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg and may increase to 4 J/kg for subsequent shocks if VF persists.
What is the next step if VF persists after 2 defibrillation attempts?
Incorrect. If VF persists after defibrillation and epinephrine, amiodarone is administered to stabilize the rhythm.
Correct. If VF persists after defibrillation and epinephrine, amiodarone is administered to stabilize the rhythm.
What is the compression fraction goal during CPR?
Incorrect. Maintaining a compression fraction above 80% ensures adequate blood flow during resuscitation.
Correct. Maintaining a compression fraction above 80% ensures adequate blood flow during resuscitation.
What is the treatment for symptomatic bradycardia unresponsive to atropine?
Incorrect. Provides external electrical stimuli to maintain adequate heart rate when atropine fails.
Correct. Provides external electrical stimuli to maintain adequate heart rate when atropine fails.
Incorrect. With an advanced airway in place, uninterrupted compressions improve blood flow while ventilation is delivered separately.
Correct. With an advanced airway in place, uninterrupted compressions improve blood flow while ventilation is delivered separately.
What is the compression depth for infant CPR?
Incorrect. Compressing one-third the depth of the chest ensures adequate perfusion while minimizing the risk of injury.
Correct. Compressing one-third the depth of the chest ensures adequate perfusion while minimizing the risk of injury.
ROSC is defined as the return of a detectable pulse and effective blood circulation.
Incorrect. ROSC signifies the resumption of spontaneous cardiac activity with effective circulation, improving patient survival.
Correct. ROSC signifies the resumption of spontaneous cardiac activity with effective circulation, improving patient survival.
What is the target core temperature during targeted temperature management (TTM)?
Incorrect. TTM helps reduce neurological injury after ROSC by maintaining a target temperature between 32-36°C.
Correct. TTM helps reduce neurological injury after ROSC by maintaining a target temperature between 32-36°C.
What is the primary treatment for VF or pulseless VT?
Incorrect. These shockable rhythms require immediate defibrillation to restore a perfusing rhythm.
Correct. These shockable rhythms require immediate defibrillation to restore a perfusing rhythm.
Which rhythm is most commonly associated with sudden cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Ventricular fibrillation is the most common cause of sudden cardiac arrest and requires immediate defibrillation.
Correct. Ventricular fibrillation is the most common cause of sudden cardiac arrest and requires immediate defibrillation.
How soon should defibrillation be performed in witnessed VF?
Incorrect. Rapid defibrillation within 1 minute of witnessed VF increases the likelihood of survival and ROSC.
Correct. Rapid defibrillation within 1 minute of witnessed VF increases the likelihood of survival and ROSC.
Defibrillation is the treatment of choice for pulseless ventricular tachycardia.
Incorrect. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore an organized rhythm.
Correct. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore an organized rhythm.
How many breaths per minute should be delivered to an adult during advanced airway CPR?
Incorrect. Ventilations are delivered at a rate of 6-8 breaths per minute to prevent hyperventilation.
Correct. Ventilations are delivered at a rate of 6-8 breaths per minute to prevent hyperventilation.
ROSC should be followed by immediate reassessment of the patient’s rhythm and ventilation.
Incorrect. Following ROSC, immediate reassessment ensures stability of the patient’s rhythm, oxygenation, and ventilation.
Correct. Following ROSC, immediate reassessment ensures stability of the patient’s rhythm, oxygenation, and ventilation.
Ventricular fibrillation is considered a shockable rhythm.
Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore an organized cardiac rhythm.
Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore an organized cardiac rhythm.
What is the proper energy setting for synchronized cardioversion of unstable atrial fibrillation?
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion with 120-200 J is used to restore normal rhythm in unstable atrial fibrillation.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion with 120-200 J is used to restore normal rhythm in unstable atrial fibrillation.
How many breaths per minute should be delivered during CPR with advanced airway?
Incorrect. Ventilations should be provided at a controlled rate of 6-8 breaths per minute to prevent hyperventilation.
Correct. Ventilations should be provided at a controlled rate of 6-8 breaths per minute to prevent hyperventilation.
