Congratulations on completing FirstAidWeb’s ACLS Provider Certification Course! You’ve invested the time, effort, and commitment—now it’s time to secure your certification.
This exam isn’t meant to trick you. It’s designed to confirm your understanding of the material. Take a breath, get focused, and review the key details below before you begin.
What is the primary focus during the first few minutes of ROSC?
Incorrect. Adequate oxygenation and ventilation are critical to preventing hypoxia or hyperoxia after ROSC.
Correct. Adequate oxygenation and ventilation are critical to preventing hypoxia or hyperoxia after ROSC.
PETCO2 monitoring can help assess the effectiveness of chest compressions.
Incorrect. PETCO2 >10 mmHg during CPR indicates effective chest compressions generating sufficient circulation.
Correct. PETCO2 >10 mmHg during CPR indicates effective chest compressions generating sufficient circulation.
The goal oxygen saturation during post-cardiac arrest care is 100%.
Incorrect. The target oxygen saturation is 92-96% to avoid hyperoxia, which can contribute to oxidative injury.
Correct. The target oxygen saturation is 92-96% to avoid hyperoxia, which can contribute to oxidative injury.
Adenosine is the drug of choice for pulseless electrical activity (PEA).
Incorrect. PEA is not treated with adenosine; it is managed with CPR, epinephrine, and identifying and treating reversible causes.
Correct. PEA is not treated with adenosine; it is managed with CPR, epinephrine, and identifying and treating reversible causes.
Synchronized cardioversion is used for unstable atrial fibrillation.
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion is indicated for unstable atrial fibrillation to restore sinus rhythm and prevent hemodynamic collapse.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion is indicated for unstable atrial fibrillation to restore sinus rhythm and prevent hemodynamic collapse.
What is the correct dose of epinephrine for pediatric cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Epinephrine is dosed at 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO during pediatric cardiac arrest to improve coronary and cerebral perfusion.
Correct. Epinephrine is dosed at 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO during pediatric cardiac arrest to improve coronary and cerebral perfusion.
The correct energy setting for synchronized cardioversion of atrial fibrillation is 120-200 J.
Incorrect. Atrial fibrillation is cardioverted starting at 120-200 J in synchronized mode to avoid delivering the shock during ventricular repolarization.
Correct. Atrial fibrillation is cardioverted starting at 120-200 J in synchronized mode to avoid delivering the shock during ventricular repolarization.
What is the compression-to-ventilation ratio for pediatric CPR with one rescuer?
Incorrect. A single rescuer performs 30 compressions followed by 2 breaths to maximize perfusion and oxygenation in pediatric CPR.
Correct. A single rescuer performs 30 compressions followed by 2 breaths to maximize perfusion and oxygenation in pediatric CPR.
During CPR, rescuers should rotate roles every 5 minutes to reduce fatigue.
Incorrect. Rescuers should switch roles every 2 minutes to maintain high-quality chest compressions and prevent fatigue.
Correct. Rescuers should switch roles every 2 minutes to maintain high-quality chest compressions and prevent fatigue.
What should you do if defibrillation is unsuccessful?
Incorrect. High-quality CPR should be resumed immediately after defibrillation to maintain perfusion and increase chances of ROSC.
Correct. High-quality CPR should be resumed immediately after defibrillation to maintain perfusion and increase chances of ROSC.
What is the dose of epinephrine for adult cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Epinephrine is given at a dose of 1 mg IV/IO every 3-5 minutes during adult cardiac arrest to improve perfusion.
Correct. Epinephrine is given at a dose of 1 mg IV/IO every 3-5 minutes during adult cardiac arrest to improve perfusion.
Chest compressions should be paused to deliver ventilation during advanced airway CPR.
Incorrect. With an advanced airway in place, compressions continue uninterrupted while breaths are delivered at 6-8 breaths per minute.
Correct. With an advanced airway in place, compressions continue uninterrupted while breaths are delivered at 6-8 breaths per minute.
What is the appropriate action for PEA?
Incorrect. CPR is the primary intervention for PEA, followed by epinephrine and identification of reversible causes.
Correct. CPR is the primary intervention for PEA, followed by epinephrine and identification of reversible causes.
What is the correct energy setting for synchronized cardioversion in unstable VT?
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion at 100 J is effective for restoring a stable rhythm in unstable ventricular tachycardia.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion at 100 J is effective for restoring a stable rhythm in unstable ventricular tachycardia.
What is the maximum energy dose for defibrillation in adults?
Incorrect. Maximum energy for monophasic defibrillators; for biphasic, follow manufacturer recommendations.
Correct. Maximum energy for monophasic defibrillators; for biphasic, follow manufacturer recommendations.
What is the goal compression fraction for high-quality CPR?
Incorrect. A compression fraction above 80% ensures that most of the resuscitation time is spent performing chest compressions.
Correct. A compression fraction above 80% ensures that most of the resuscitation time is spent performing chest compressions.
What is the maximum dose of atropine for bradycardia?
Incorrect. Atropine doses should not exceed 3 mg during bradycardia management to avoid adverse effects.
Correct. Atropine doses should not exceed 3 mg during bradycardia management to avoid adverse effects.
Synchronized cardioversion is indicated for unstable ventricular tachycardia with a pulse.
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion restores organized cardiac activity in unstable VT with a pulse, preventing progression to VF.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion restores organized cardiac activity in unstable VT with a pulse, preventing progression to VF.
Hypovolemia is a common cause of pulseless electrical activity (PEA).
Incorrect. Hypovolemia is a reversible cause of PEA and can be treated with rapid fluid resuscitation.
Correct. Hypovolemia is a reversible cause of PEA and can be treated with rapid fluid resuscitation.
What is the maximum dose of atropine for adult bradycardia?
Incorrect. Atropine should not exceed a total dose of 3 mg when treating symptomatic bradycardia in adults.
Correct. Atropine should not exceed a total dose of 3 mg when treating symptomatic bradycardia in adults.
Which of the following is part of the "H's" for reversible cardiac arrest causes?
Incorrect. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be addressed during resuscitation efforts.
Correct. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be addressed during resuscitation efforts.
Synchronized cardioversion is the treatment of choice for unstable atrial fibrillation.
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion is used for unstable atrial fibrillation to restore organized electrical activity.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion is used for unstable atrial fibrillation to restore organized electrical activity.
Atropine is used to treat pulseless ventricular tachycardia.
Incorrect. Pulseless VT is treated with defibrillation, not atropine. Atropine is used for symptomatic bradycardia.
Correct. Pulseless VT is treated with defibrillation, not atropine. Atropine is used for symptomatic bradycardia.
How often should a rhythm check occur during CPR?
Incorrect. Rhythm checks should be performed every 2 minutes during CPR, coinciding with compressor role switches.
Correct. Rhythm checks should be performed every 2 minutes during CPR, coinciding with compressor role switches.
How many breaths per minute should be delivered during CPR with advanced airway?
Incorrect. Ventilations should be provided at a controlled rate of 6-8 breaths per minute to prevent hyperventilation.
Correct. Ventilations should be provided at a controlled rate of 6-8 breaths per minute to prevent hyperventilation.
How often should epinephrine be administered during cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Maintains vasoconstriction, improving blood flow to vital organs during resuscitation.
Correct. Maintains vasoconstriction, improving blood flow to vital organs during resuscitation.
The compression-to-ventilation ratio for two-rescuer pediatric CPR is 15:2.
Incorrect. A 15:2 ratio ensures optimal oxygenation and circulation during two-rescuer CPR in pediatric patients.
Correct. A 15:2 ratio ensures optimal oxygenation and circulation during two-rescuer CPR in pediatric patients.
What is the most common cause of PEA?
Incorrect. Hypoxia is a reversible cause of PEA; it must be treated immediately with oxygenation and ventilation.
Correct. Hypoxia is a reversible cause of PEA; it must be treated immediately with oxygenation and ventilation.
Epinephrine is administered every 5-10 minutes during cardiac arrest.
Incorrect. Epinephrine is administered every 3-5 minutes during cardiac arrest to maximize coronary and cerebral perfusion.
Correct. Epinephrine is administered every 3-5 minutes during cardiac arrest to maximize coronary and cerebral perfusion.
Defibrillation is the treatment of choice for pulseless electrical activity.
Incorrect. PEA is not a shockable rhythm; it is treated with CPR and addressing reversible causes such as hypoxia or hypovolemia.
Correct. PEA is not a shockable rhythm; it is treated with CPR and addressing reversible causes such as hypoxia or hypovolemia.
What is the appropriate action if PEA is identified?
Incorrect. PEA is treated with CPR, epinephrine, and identifying reversible causes to restore organized electrical activity.
Correct. PEA is treated with CPR, epinephrine, and identifying reversible causes to restore organized electrical activity.
What is the dose of adenosine for pediatric SVT?
Incorrect. Adenosine is administered as a rapid IV push to terminate SVT in pediatric patients, followed by a saline flush.
Correct. Adenosine is administered as a rapid IV push to terminate SVT in pediatric patients, followed by a saline flush.
What is the recommended energy setting for synchronized cardioversion in narrow, irregular tachycardia?
Incorrect. For unstable narrow, irregular tachycardias, synchronized cardioversion at 120-200 J is recommended.
Correct. For unstable narrow, irregular tachycardias, synchronized cardioversion at 120-200 J is recommended.
What is the appropriate interval for rhythm checks during CPR?
Incorrect. Rhythm checks are performed every 2 minutes to evaluate for shockable rhythms and assess the need for defibrillation.
Correct. Rhythm checks are performed every 2 minutes to evaluate for shockable rhythms and assess the need for defibrillation.
What is the recommended interval for ventilation during advanced airway CPR?
Incorrect. Ventilation with an advanced airway should be provided at a rate of 1 breath every 6 seconds, or 10 breaths per minute.
Correct. Ventilation with an advanced airway should be provided at a rate of 1 breath every 6 seconds, or 10 breaths per minute.
What is the initial dose of magnesium sulfate for torsades de pointes?
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate is administered to stabilize the myocardium and treat torsades de pointes effectively.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate is administered to stabilize the myocardium and treat torsades de pointes effectively.
What is the first-line drug for narrow-complex SVT?
Incorrect. Adenosine is used to terminate reentrant arrhythmias in narrow-complex SVT by slowing conduction through the AV node.
Correct. Adenosine is used to terminate reentrant arrhythmias in narrow-complex SVT by slowing conduction through the AV node.
The compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR without an advanced airway is 15:2.
Incorrect. The correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR without an advanced airway is 30:2.
Correct. The correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR without an advanced airway is 30:2.
What is the appropriate action for a patient with PEA?
Incorrect. PEA is treated with epinephrine and high-quality CPR to address underlying reversible causes.
Correct. PEA is treated with epinephrine and high-quality CPR to address underlying reversible causes.
What is the best method to monitor the quality of CPR?
Incorrect. PETCO2 monitoring provides real-time feedback on chest compressions and the effectiveness of CPR.
Correct. PETCO2 monitoring provides real-time feedback on chest compressions and the effectiveness of CPR.
What is the appropriate depth for chest compressions in adults?
Incorrect. Compressing 2-2.4 inches ensures effective perfusion during adult CPR while minimizing the risk of injury.
Correct. Compressing 2-2.4 inches ensures effective perfusion during adult CPR while minimizing the risk of injury.
How should you treat a patient in asystole?
Incorrect. High-quality CPR is the primary treatment for asystole, along with epinephrine and addressing reversible causes.
Correct. High-quality CPR is the primary treatment for asystole, along with epinephrine and addressing reversible causes.
What is the recommended treatment for tension pneumothorax?
Incorrect. Needle decompression relieves pressure caused by tension pneumothorax, improving ventilation and circulation.
Correct. Needle decompression relieves pressure caused by tension pneumothorax, improving ventilation and circulation.
What is the recommended maximum interval for chest compression interruptions?
Incorrect. Minimizing interruptions to less than 10 seconds preserves perfusion and improves resuscitation outcomes.
Correct. Minimizing interruptions to less than 10 seconds preserves perfusion and improves resuscitation outcomes.
What is the goal oxygen saturation during ACLS care?
Incorrect. Maintaining this range prevents hypoxia while minimizing the risks of hyperoxia and oxidative injury.
Correct. Maintaining this range prevents hypoxia while minimizing the risks of hyperoxia and oxidative injury.
How should you confirm ET tube placement in a patient?
Incorrect. Waveform capnography ensures proper ET tube placement by monitoring exhaled CO? levels.
Correct. Waveform capnography ensures proper ET tube placement by monitoring exhaled CO? levels.
What is the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio during CPR?
Incorrect. For adult CPR, the ratio ensures adequate perfusion and oxygenation when no advanced airway is in place.
Correct. For adult CPR, the ratio ensures adequate perfusion and oxygenation when no advanced airway is in place.
Adenosine is used for the treatment of wide-complex tachycardia.
Incorrect. Adenosine is used for narrow-complex SVT, not wide-complex tachycardia, which is typically treated with amiodarone.
Correct. Adenosine is used for narrow-complex SVT, not wide-complex tachycardia, which is typically treated with amiodarone.
How should breaths be delivered with a bag-mask device?
Incorrect. Delivering 1 breath every 5-6 seconds prevents hypoventilation or hyperventilation.
Correct. Delivering 1 breath every 5-6 seconds prevents hypoventilation or hyperventilation.
What is the recommended oxygen saturation goal during post-cardiac arrest care?
Incorrect. Oxygen saturation should be maintained at 92-96% to prevent hypoxia and avoid the harmful effects of hyperoxia.
Correct. Oxygen saturation should be maintained at 92-96% to prevent hypoxia and avoid the harmful effects of hyperoxia.
What is the target PETCO2 during high-quality CPR?
Incorrect. PETCO2 readings above 10 mmHg during CPR indicate adequate chest compressions and cardiac output.
Correct. PETCO2 readings above 10 mmHg during CPR indicate adequate chest compressions and cardiac output.
The proper ventilation rate during advanced airway CPR is 6-8 breaths per minute.
Incorrect. Delivering 6-8 breaths per minute ensures adequate oxygenation without hyperventilation during CPR with an advanced airway.
Correct. Delivering 6-8 breaths per minute ensures adequate oxygenation without hyperventilation during CPR with an advanced airway.
What is the proper treatment for pulseless ventricular tachycardia?
Incorrect. Defibrillation is the primary treatment for pulseless VT, aiming to restore organized cardiac activity.
Correct. Defibrillation is the primary treatment for pulseless VT, aiming to restore organized cardiac activity.
What is the recommended rate of chest compressions per minute?
Incorrect. Optimal for maintaining adequate circulation without risking poor perfusion due to excessive speed.
Correct. Optimal for maintaining adequate circulation without risking poor perfusion due to excessive speed.
What is the recommended initial dose of epinephrine in anaphylaxis?
Incorrect. IM epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis, administered into the mid-thigh for rapid absorption.
Correct. IM epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis, administered into the mid-thigh for rapid absorption.
What is the best indicator of effective ventilation during CPR?
Incorrect. PETCO2 monitoring provides real-time feedback on ventilation and the effectiveness of chest compressions.
Correct. PETCO2 monitoring provides real-time feedback on ventilation and the effectiveness of chest compressions.
Hypovolemia is one of the reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
Incorrect. Hypovolemia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest that can be treated with fluid resuscitation to restore circulation.
Correct. Hypovolemia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest that can be treated with fluid resuscitation to restore circulation.
ROSC should be followed by immediate reassessment of the patient’s rhythm and ventilation.
Incorrect. Following ROSC, immediate reassessment ensures stability of the patient’s rhythm, oxygenation, and ventilation.
Correct. Following ROSC, immediate reassessment ensures stability of the patient’s rhythm, oxygenation, and ventilation.
What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR without an advanced airway?
Incorrect. A 30:2 ratio ensures adequate oxygenation and circulation when no advanced airway is present.
Correct. A 30:2 ratio ensures adequate oxygenation and circulation when no advanced airway is present.
How many cycles of CPR are recommended before rhythm reassessment?
Incorrect. Two minutes of CPR (about 5 cycles of 30 compressions and 2 breaths) should be performed before reassessing the rhythm.
Correct. Two minutes of CPR (about 5 cycles of 30 compressions and 2 breaths) should be performed before reassessing the rhythm.
What is the preferred treatment for ventricular tachycardia with a pulse?
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion is the treatment of choice for unstable ventricular tachycardia with a pulse.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion is the treatment of choice for unstable ventricular tachycardia with a pulse.
Chest compressions should be performed at a rate of 80-100 compressions per minute.
Incorrect. The recommended rate for chest compressions is 100-120 compressions per minute to maximize perfusion.
Correct. The recommended rate for chest compressions is 100-120 compressions per minute to maximize perfusion.
Defibrillation is the treatment of choice for pulseless ventricular tachycardia.
Incorrect. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore an organized rhythm.
Correct. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore an organized rhythm.
What is the compression rate for pediatric CPR?
Incorrect. The same compression rate as adults ensures adequate perfusion in pediatric patients during CPR.
Correct. The same compression rate as adults ensures adequate perfusion in pediatric patients during CPR.
Magnesium sulfate is the first-line drug for ventricular fibrillation.
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate is used to treat torsades de pointes but is not the first-line drug for VF, where epinephrine is prioritized.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate is used to treat torsades de pointes but is not the first-line drug for VF, where epinephrine is prioritized.
