Congratulations on completing FirstAidWeb’s ACLS Provider Certification Course! You’ve invested the time, effort, and commitment—now it’s time to secure your certification.
This exam isn’t meant to trick you. It’s designed to confirm your understanding of the material. Take a breath, get focused, and review the key details below before you begin.
The target temperature for targeted temperature management (TTM) is 32-36°C.
Incorrect. TTM is used to reduce neurological injury post-ROSC by maintaining a core temperature of 32-36°C.
Correct. TTM is used to reduce neurological injury post-ROSC by maintaining a core temperature of 32-36°C.
The initial dose of amiodarone for refractory VF is 300 mg IV/IO.
Incorrect. Amiodarone 300 mg IV/IO is administered after defibrillation and epinephrine to treat refractory VF or pulseless VT.
Correct. Amiodarone 300 mg IV/IO is administered after defibrillation and epinephrine to treat refractory VF or pulseless VT.
What is the first step in managing a patient with asystole?
Incorrect. Immediate CPR is required as asystole is a non-shockable rhythm.
Correct. Immediate CPR is required as asystole is a non-shockable rhythm.
What is the recommended interval for ventilation during advanced airway CPR?
Incorrect. Ventilation with an advanced airway should be provided at a rate of 1 breath every 6 seconds, or 10 breaths per minute.
Correct. Ventilation with an advanced airway should be provided at a rate of 1 breath every 6 seconds, or 10 breaths per minute.
What is the proper dose of naloxone for suspected opioid overdose?
Incorrect. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, restoring respiratory effort in patients with respiratory depression.
Correct. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, restoring respiratory effort in patients with respiratory depression.
What is the appropriate action for PEA?
Incorrect. CPR is the primary intervention for PEA, followed by epinephrine and identification of reversible causes.
Correct. CPR is the primary intervention for PEA, followed by epinephrine and identification of reversible causes.
How often should you switch chest compressors during CPR?
Incorrect. Switching every 2 minutes reduces rescuer fatigue and ensures high-quality chest compressions.
Correct. Switching every 2 minutes reduces rescuer fatigue and ensures high-quality chest compressions.
What is the preferred route for drug administration during ACLS?
Incorrect. IV access is preferred for rapid administration; IO is the alternative if IV access is unavailable.
Correct. IV access is preferred for rapid administration; IO is the alternative if IV access is unavailable.
What is the recommended treatment for tension pneumothorax?
Incorrect. Needle decompression relieves pressure caused by tension pneumothorax, improving ventilation and circulation.
Correct. Needle decompression relieves pressure caused by tension pneumothorax, improving ventilation and circulation.
What is the maximum pause duration between chest compressions?
Incorrect. Pausing compressions for more than 10 seconds interrupts perfusion and reduces the chances of ROSC.
Correct. Pausing compressions for more than 10 seconds interrupts perfusion and reduces the chances of ROSC.
Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for torsades de pointes.
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate is the first-line treatment for torsades de pointes as it stabilizes the myocardium.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate is the first-line treatment for torsades de pointes as it stabilizes the myocardium.
What is the correct dose of epinephrine for pediatric cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Epinephrine is administered every 3-5 minutes during pediatric cardiac arrest to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion.
Correct. Epinephrine is administered every 3-5 minutes during pediatric cardiac arrest to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion.
Chest compressions should be started immediately for a patient in asystole.
Incorrect. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring immediate high-quality CPR and epinephrine to optimize perfusion.
Correct. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring immediate high-quality CPR and epinephrine to optimize perfusion.
What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR without an advanced airway?
Incorrect. A 30:2 ratio ensures adequate oxygenation and circulation when no advanced airway is present.
Correct. A 30:2 ratio ensures adequate oxygenation and circulation when no advanced airway is present.
Synchronized cardioversion is the treatment of choice for unstable atrial flutter.
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion restores organized cardiac activity in unstable atrial flutter.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion restores organized cardiac activity in unstable atrial flutter.
What is the recommended ventilation rate during CPR without an advanced airway?
Incorrect. Delivering 10 breaths per minute ensures adequate oxygenation without causing hyperventilation.
Correct. Delivering 10 breaths per minute ensures adequate oxygenation without causing hyperventilation.
What is the correct ventilation rate for CPR with an advanced airway?
Incorrect. Providing 6-8 breaths per minute ensures adequate oxygenation and ventilation without interfering with chest compressions.
Correct. Providing 6-8 breaths per minute ensures adequate oxygenation and ventilation without interfering with chest compressions.
What is the compression-to-ventilation ratio for pediatric CPR with one rescuer?
Incorrect. A single rescuer performs 30 compressions followed by 2 breaths to maximize perfusion and oxygenation in pediatric CPR.
Correct. A single rescuer performs 30 compressions followed by 2 breaths to maximize perfusion and oxygenation in pediatric CPR.
What is the appropriate treatment for severe bradycardia in pediatric patients unresponsive to atropine?
Incorrect. Epinephrine is given as a continuous infusion to maintain adequate heart rate and perfusion when atropine is ineffective.
Correct. Epinephrine is given as a continuous infusion to maintain adequate heart rate and perfusion when atropine is ineffective.
What is the drug of choice for stable wide-complex tachycardia?
Incorrect. Amiodarone is used to stabilize wide-complex tachycardias in stable patients to prevent deterioration into cardiac arrest.
Correct. Amiodarone is used to stabilize wide-complex tachycardias in stable patients to prevent deterioration into cardiac arrest.
The maximum time for a pulse check during CPR is 10 seconds.
Incorrect. Pulse checks during CPR should not exceed 10 seconds to minimize interruptions in chest compressions.
Correct. Pulse checks during CPR should not exceed 10 seconds to minimize interruptions in chest compressions.
Hypovolemia is one of the reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
Incorrect. Hypovolemia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest that can be treated with fluid resuscitation to restore circulation.
Correct. Hypovolemia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest that can be treated with fluid resuscitation to restore circulation.
What is the proper dose of magnesium sulfate for torsades de pointes?
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the myocardium and is the drug of choice for torsades de pointes.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the myocardium and is the drug of choice for torsades de pointes.
The initial dose of adenosine for narrow-complex SVT in adults is 6 mg IV.
Incorrect. Adenosine 6 mg is given as a rapid IV push for terminating narrow-complex SVT caused by reentrant pathways.
Correct. Adenosine 6 mg is given as a rapid IV push for terminating narrow-complex SVT caused by reentrant pathways.
The compression fraction during CPR should be >60% for effective resuscitation.
Incorrect. The compression fraction should be greater than 80% to maximize perfusion during CPR.
Correct. The compression fraction should be greater than 80% to maximize perfusion during CPR.
ROSC is defined as the return of a detectable pulse and effective blood circulation.
Incorrect. ROSC signifies the resumption of spontaneous cardiac activity with effective circulation, improving patient survival.
Correct. ROSC signifies the resumption of spontaneous cardiac activity with effective circulation, improving patient survival.
How should compressions be performed for an infant during CPR?
Incorrect. The two-thumb encircling technique provides high-quality compressions for infants during CPR.
Correct. The two-thumb encircling technique provides high-quality compressions for infants during CPR.
Adenosine is used for the treatment of wide-complex tachycardia.
Incorrect. Adenosine is used for narrow-complex SVT, not wide-complex tachycardia, which is typically treated with amiodarone.
Correct. Adenosine is used for narrow-complex SVT, not wide-complex tachycardia, which is typically treated with amiodarone.
How often should rhythm checks occur during ongoing CPR?
Incorrect. Rhythm checks should be performed every 2 minutes, coinciding with rescuer role switches, to evaluate for shockable rhythms.
Correct. Rhythm checks should be performed every 2 minutes, coinciding with rescuer role switches, to evaluate for shockable rhythms.
Synchronized cardioversion is indicated for unstable ventricular tachycardia with a pulse.
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion restores organized cardiac activity in unstable VT with a pulse, preventing progression to VF.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion restores organized cardiac activity in unstable VT with a pulse, preventing progression to VF.
What is the initial dose of amiodarone for pulseless ventricular tachycardia?
Incorrect. Stabilizes the myocardium and suppresses arrhythmias during refractory VF or pulseless VT.
Correct. Stabilizes the myocardium and suppresses arrhythmias during refractory VF or pulseless VT.
Which rhythm is characterized by a sawtooth atrial pattern?
Incorrect. Atrial flutter presents as a sawtooth pattern on the ECG and requires rate control or cardioversion depending on stability.
Correct. Atrial flutter presents as a sawtooth pattern on the ECG and requires rate control or cardioversion depending on stability.
What is the first action when you see an unresponsive patient?
Incorrect. Shouting for help ensures additional resources and a defibrillator are quickly available.
Correct. Shouting for help ensures additional resources and a defibrillator are quickly available.
What is the recommended duration of a pulse check in cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Pulse checks should be limited to 10 seconds to minimize interruptions in chest compressions.
Correct. Pulse checks should be limited to 10 seconds to minimize interruptions in chest compressions.
Which of the following is part of the "H's" for reversible cardiac arrest causes?
Incorrect. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be addressed during resuscitation efforts.
Correct. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be addressed during resuscitation efforts.
The recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio for single-rescuer infant CPR is 15:2.
Incorrect. The compression-to-ventilation ratio for single-rescuer infant CPR is 30:2, ensuring sufficient oxygenation and circulation.
Correct. The compression-to-ventilation ratio for single-rescuer infant CPR is 30:2, ensuring sufficient oxygenation and circulation.
What is the next step if VF persists after 2 defibrillation attempts?
Incorrect. If VF persists after defibrillation and epinephrine, amiodarone is administered to stabilize the rhythm.
Correct. If VF persists after defibrillation and epinephrine, amiodarone is administered to stabilize the rhythm.
What is the appropriate interval for delivering epinephrine during cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Epinephrine is repeated every 3-5 minutes during cardiac arrest to enhance perfusion pressure.
Correct. Epinephrine is repeated every 3-5 minutes during cardiac arrest to enhance perfusion pressure.
ROSC should be followed by immediate reassessment of the patient’s rhythm and ventilation.
Incorrect. Following ROSC, immediate reassessment ensures stability of the patient’s rhythm, oxygenation, and ventilation.
Correct. Following ROSC, immediate reassessment ensures stability of the patient’s rhythm, oxygenation, and ventilation.
What is the shockable rhythm in cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Requires immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
Correct. Requires immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
Pulseless electrical activity (PEA) is treated with defibrillation.
Incorrect. PEA is not a shockable rhythm; it is managed with high-quality CPR and addressing the underlying reversible causes.
Correct. PEA is not a shockable rhythm; it is managed with high-quality CPR and addressing the underlying reversible causes.
What is the first drug given for VF or pulseless VT?
Incorrect. Epinephrine is administered after defibrillation to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion during resuscitation.
Correct. Epinephrine is administered after defibrillation to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion during resuscitation.
What is the appropriate depth for chest compressions in adults?
Incorrect. Compressing 2-2.4 inches ensures effective perfusion during adult CPR while minimizing the risk of injury.
Correct. Compressing 2-2.4 inches ensures effective perfusion during adult CPR while minimizing the risk of injury.
What is the preferred treatment for unstable SVT?
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion is used to terminate unstable SVT by restoring normal electrical activity in the heart.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion is used to terminate unstable SVT by restoring normal electrical activity in the heart.
How often should team roles be rotated during CPR to avoid fatigue?
Incorrect. Rotating team roles every 2 minutes prevents fatigue, ensuring consistent delivery of high-quality chest compressions.
Correct. Rotating team roles every 2 minutes prevents fatigue, ensuring consistent delivery of high-quality chest compressions.
How should chest compressions be performed on a patient with an advanced airway?
Incorrect. Continuous chest compressions are performed while ventilations are delivered every 6 seconds when an advanced airway is in place.
Correct. Continuous chest compressions are performed while ventilations are delivered every 6 seconds when an advanced airway is in place.
Defibrillation should be delayed until after administering epinephrine in ventricular fibrillation.
Incorrect. Defibrillation is the priority for VF and should not be delayed for drug administration, as it is the definitive treatment.
Correct. Defibrillation is the priority for VF and should not be delayed for drug administration, as it is the definitive treatment.
What is the appropriate rate of chest compressions for pediatric CPR?
Incorrect. A rate of 100-120 compressions per minute ensures adequate circulation in pediatric patients.
Correct. A rate of 100-120 compressions per minute ensures adequate circulation in pediatric patients.
The correct dose of epinephrine for pediatric cardiac arrest is 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO.
Incorrect. Epinephrine at 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO is administered every 3-5 minutes to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion in children.
Correct. Epinephrine at 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO is administered every 3-5 minutes to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion in children.
What is the maximum time allowed for interruption of chest compressions?
Incorrect. Interruptions in chest compressions should not exceed 10 seconds to maintain adequate perfusion to vital organs.
Correct. Interruptions in chest compressions should not exceed 10 seconds to maintain adequate perfusion to vital organs.
What is the most reliable indicator of effective chest compressions?
Incorrect. PETCO2 values greater than 10 mmHg during CPR indicate adequate chest compressions and blood circulation.
Correct. PETCO2 values greater than 10 mmHg during CPR indicate adequate chest compressions and blood circulation.
PETCO2 monitoring is used to confirm effective ventilation and chest compressions.
Incorrect. PETCO2 monitoring helps assess the effectiveness of both ventilation and chest compressions in real-time during CPR.
Correct. PETCO2 monitoring helps assess the effectiveness of both ventilation and chest compressions in real-time during CPR.
How often should you deliver breaths during CPR with an advanced airway?
Incorrect. Ventilations are delivered every 6-8 seconds to provide oxygenation without interrupting chest compressions.
Correct. Ventilations are delivered every 6-8 seconds to provide oxygenation without interrupting chest compressions.
What is the correct dose of dopamine for bradycardia?
Incorrect. Dopamine is used to improve heart rate and contractility in bradycardia unresponsive to atropine.
Correct. Dopamine is used to improve heart rate and contractility in bradycardia unresponsive to atropine.
What is the first step when you encounter an unresponsive adult?
Incorrect. Activating EMS ensures help is on the way while you assess and initiate resuscitation.
Correct. Activating EMS ensures help is on the way while you assess and initiate resuscitation.
What is the first intervention for a witnessed cardiac arrest in VF?
Incorrect. Immediate defibrillation is the most effective intervention for a witnessed cardiac arrest in VF.
Correct. Immediate defibrillation is the most effective intervention for a witnessed cardiac arrest in VF.
The correct defibrillation dose for adults using a biphasic defibrillator is 120-200 J.
Incorrect. Biphasic defibrillation begins at 120-200 J to terminate shockable rhythms like VF and pulseless VT effectively.
Correct. Biphasic defibrillation begins at 120-200 J to terminate shockable rhythms like VF and pulseless VT effectively.
How often should a rhythm check occur during CPR?
Incorrect. Rhythm checks should be performed every 2 minutes during CPR, coinciding with compressor role switches.
Correct. Rhythm checks should be performed every 2 minutes during CPR, coinciding with compressor role switches.
What is the primary intervention for symptomatic bradycardia?
Incorrect. Atropine is the first-line treatment for symptomatic bradycardia, increasing the heart rate by blocking vagal stimulation.
Correct. Atropine is the first-line treatment for symptomatic bradycardia, increasing the heart rate by blocking vagal stimulation.
What is the recommended oxygen saturation goal during post-cardiac arrest care?
Incorrect. Oxygen saturation should be maintained at 92-96% to prevent hypoxia and avoid the harmful effects of hyperoxia.
Correct. Oxygen saturation should be maintained at 92-96% to prevent hypoxia and avoid the harmful effects of hyperoxia.
What rhythm requires immediate defibrillation?
Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized electrical activity.
Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized electrical activity.
Defibrillation is the treatment of choice for pulseless electrical activity.
Incorrect. PEA is not a shockable rhythm; it is treated with CPR and addressing reversible causes such as hypoxia or hypovolemia.
Correct. PEA is not a shockable rhythm; it is treated with CPR and addressing reversible causes such as hypoxia or hypovolemia.
What is the appropriate action if PEA is identified?
Incorrect. PEA is treated with CPR, epinephrine, and identifying reversible causes to restore organized electrical activity.
Correct. PEA is treated with CPR, epinephrine, and identifying reversible causes to restore organized electrical activity.
What is the preferred initial action for pulseless electrical activity?
Incorrect. High-quality CPR is the primary intervention for PEA, followed by epinephrine administration and addressing reversible causes.
Correct. High-quality CPR is the primary intervention for PEA, followed by epinephrine administration and addressing reversible causes.
What is the best method to monitor the quality of CPR?
Incorrect. PETCO2 monitoring provides real-time feedback on chest compressions and the effectiveness of CPR.
Correct. PETCO2 monitoring provides real-time feedback on chest compressions and the effectiveness of CPR.
