Congratulations on completing FirstAidWeb’s ACLS Provider Certification Course! You’ve invested the time, effort, and commitment—now it’s time to secure your certification.
This exam isn’t meant to trick you. It’s designed to confirm your understanding of the material. Take a breath, get focused, and review the key details below before you begin.
How often should rhythm checks occur during ongoing CPR?
Incorrect. Rhythm checks are performed every 2 minutes to evaluate for shockable rhythms and assess the effectiveness of interventions.
Correct. Rhythm checks are performed every 2 minutes to evaluate for shockable rhythms and assess the effectiveness of interventions.
What is the primary treatment for VF during cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm, and immediate defibrillation is the most effective treatment.
Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm, and immediate defibrillation is the most effective treatment.
What is the maximum pause duration between chest compressions?
Incorrect. Pausing compressions for more than 10 seconds interrupts perfusion and reduces the chances of ROSC.
Correct. Pausing compressions for more than 10 seconds interrupts perfusion and reduces the chances of ROSC.
What is the most common cause of PEA?
Incorrect. Hypoxia is the most frequent reversible cause of PEA and should be addressed immediately with oxygenation and ventilation.
Correct. Hypoxia is the most frequent reversible cause of PEA and should be addressed immediately with oxygenation and ventilation.
What is the recommended dose of adenosine for treating stable SVT in adults?
Incorrect. Adenosine is administered as a rapid IV push at an initial dose of 6 mg to terminate stable SVT.
Correct. Adenosine is administered as a rapid IV push at an initial dose of 6 mg to terminate stable SVT.
What is the proper energy setting for synchronized cardioversion of unstable atrial fibrillation?
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion with 120-200 J is used to restore normal rhythm in unstable atrial fibrillation.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion with 120-200 J is used to restore normal rhythm in unstable atrial fibrillation.
The correct dose of epinephrine for pediatric cardiac arrest is 1 mg/kg IV/IO.
Incorrect. The correct dose of epinephrine for pediatric cardiac arrest is 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO, not 1 mg/kg.
Correct. The correct dose of epinephrine for pediatric cardiac arrest is 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO, not 1 mg/kg.
What is the maximum dose of atropine for adult bradycardia?
Incorrect. Atropine should not exceed a total dose of 3 mg when treating symptomatic bradycardia in adults.
Correct. Atropine should not exceed a total dose of 3 mg when treating symptomatic bradycardia in adults.
How often should you assess the rhythm during ongoing CPR?
Incorrect. Rhythm checks are performed every 2 minutes during pauses in CPR to evaluate for shockable rhythms.
Correct. Rhythm checks are performed every 2 minutes during pauses in CPR to evaluate for shockable rhythms.
What is the recommended initial dose of epinephrine in anaphylaxis?
Incorrect. IM epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis, administered into the mid-thigh for rapid absorption.
Correct. IM epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis, administered into the mid-thigh for rapid absorption.
What is the dose of atropine for bradycardia?
Incorrect. First-line treatment to block vagal stimulation and increase heart rate.
Correct. First-line treatment to block vagal stimulation and increase heart rate.
During CPR with an advanced airway, chest compressions should continue uninterrupted.
Incorrect. With an advanced airway in place, uninterrupted compressions improve blood flow while ventilation is delivered separately.
Correct. With an advanced airway in place, uninterrupted compressions improve blood flow while ventilation is delivered separately.
What is the maximum dose of atropine for bradycardia?
Incorrect. Atropine doses should not exceed 3 mg during bradycardia management to avoid adverse effects.
Correct. Atropine doses should not exceed 3 mg during bradycardia management to avoid adverse effects.
Lidocaine is the first-line drug for ventricular fibrillation.
Incorrect. Epinephrine is the first-line drug for VF, with amiodarone as the preferred antiarrhythmic for refractory cases.
Correct. Epinephrine is the first-line drug for VF, with amiodarone as the preferred antiarrhythmic for refractory cases.
The recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR without an advanced airway is 30:2.
Incorrect. A 30:2 ratio ensures sufficient oxygenation and circulation in adults during CPR without an advanced airway.
Correct. A 30:2 ratio ensures sufficient oxygenation and circulation in adults during CPR without an advanced airway.
What is the appropriate interval for delivering epinephrine during cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Epinephrine is repeated every 3-5 minutes during cardiac arrest to enhance perfusion pressure.
Correct. Epinephrine is repeated every 3-5 minutes during cardiac arrest to enhance perfusion pressure.
The initial dose of amiodarone for refractory VF is 300 mg IV/IO.
Incorrect. Amiodarone 300 mg IV/IO is administered after defibrillation and epinephrine to treat refractory VF or pulseless VT.
Correct. Amiodarone 300 mg IV/IO is administered after defibrillation and epinephrine to treat refractory VF or pulseless VT.
Which rhythm is most commonly associated with sudden cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Ventricular fibrillation is the most common cause of sudden cardiac arrest and requires immediate defibrillation.
Correct. Ventricular fibrillation is the most common cause of sudden cardiac arrest and requires immediate defibrillation.
Hypoxia is a common cause of pulseless electrical activity (PEA).
Incorrect. Hypoxia is one of the most common reversible causes of PEA and is addressed with high-quality oxygenation during resuscitation.
Correct. Hypoxia is one of the most common reversible causes of PEA and is addressed with high-quality oxygenation during resuscitation.
The recommended compression rate for CPR is 100-120 compressions per minute.
Incorrect. A rate of 100-120 compressions per minute ensures adequate circulation without risking incomplete recoil or excessive fatigue.
Correct. A rate of 100-120 compressions per minute ensures adequate circulation without risking incomplete recoil or excessive fatigue.
Which rhythm is not shockable?
Incorrect. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm treated with high-quality CPR and epinephrine.
Correct. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm treated with high-quality CPR and epinephrine.
What is the first intervention for a witnessed cardiac arrest in VF?
Incorrect. Immediate defibrillation is the most effective intervention for a witnessed cardiac arrest in VF.
Correct. Immediate defibrillation is the most effective intervention for a witnessed cardiac arrest in VF.
How many breaths per minute should be delivered to an adult during advanced airway CPR?
Incorrect. Ventilations are delivered at a rate of 6-8 breaths per minute to prevent hyperventilation.
Correct. Ventilations are delivered at a rate of 6-8 breaths per minute to prevent hyperventilation.
Chest compressions should be paused to deliver ventilation during advanced airway CPR.
Incorrect. With an advanced airway in place, compressions continue uninterrupted while breaths are delivered at 6-8 breaths per minute.
Correct. With an advanced airway in place, compressions continue uninterrupted while breaths are delivered at 6-8 breaths per minute.
What is the correct dose of dopamine for bradycardia?
Incorrect. Dopamine is used to improve heart rate and contractility in bradycardia unresponsive to atropine.
Correct. Dopamine is used to improve heart rate and contractility in bradycardia unresponsive to atropine.
Synchronized cardioversion is the treatment of choice for unstable atrial flutter.
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion restores organized cardiac activity in unstable atrial flutter.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion restores organized cardiac activity in unstable atrial flutter.
What is the compression-to-ventilation ratio for pediatric CPR with two rescuers?
Incorrect. A 15:2 ratio is used during pediatric CPR with two rescuers to optimize ventilation and circulation.
Correct. A 15:2 ratio is used during pediatric CPR with two rescuers to optimize ventilation and circulation.
The initial dose of adenosine for narrow-complex SVT in adults is 6 mg IV.
Incorrect. Adenosine 6 mg is given as a rapid IV push for terminating narrow-complex SVT caused by reentrant pathways.
Correct. Adenosine 6 mg is given as a rapid IV push for terminating narrow-complex SVT caused by reentrant pathways.
What is the dose of adenosine for stable SVT?
Incorrect. Administered via rapid IV push, followed by a saline flush to terminate reentrant arrhythmias.
Correct. Administered via rapid IV push, followed by a saline flush to terminate reentrant arrhythmias.
Which rhythm requires transcutaneous pacing if symptomatic?
Incorrect. Symptomatic second-degree AV block type II can progress to complete heart block, requiring pacing.
Correct. Symptomatic second-degree AV block type II can progress to complete heart block, requiring pacing.
Which of the following is part of the "H's" for reversible cardiac arrest causes?
Incorrect. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be addressed during resuscitation efforts.
Correct. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be addressed during resuscitation efforts.
Hypothermia is one of the "H's" in the reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
Incorrect. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and is treated by warming the patient to improve outcomes.
Correct. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and is treated by warming the patient to improve outcomes.
Atropine is used to treat pulseless ventricular tachycardia.
Incorrect. Pulseless VT is treated with defibrillation, not atropine. Atropine is used for symptomatic bradycardia.
Correct. Pulseless VT is treated with defibrillation, not atropine. Atropine is used for symptomatic bradycardia.
The target temperature for targeted temperature management (TTM) is 32-36°C.
Incorrect. TTM is used to reduce neurological injury post-ROSC by maintaining a core temperature of 32-36°C.
Correct. TTM is used to reduce neurological injury post-ROSC by maintaining a core temperature of 32-36°C.
Incorrect. Hypoxia is a reversible cause of PEA; it must be treated immediately with oxygenation and ventilation.
Correct. Hypoxia is a reversible cause of PEA; it must be treated immediately with oxygenation and ventilation.
What is the correct dose of magnesium sulfate for torsades de pointes?
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate is administered to stabilize the myocardium and terminate torsades de pointes.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate is administered to stabilize the myocardium and terminate torsades de pointes.
What should you do if defibrillation is unsuccessful?
Incorrect. High-quality CPR should be resumed immediately after defibrillation to maintain perfusion and increase chances of ROSC.
Correct. High-quality CPR should be resumed immediately after defibrillation to maintain perfusion and increase chances of ROSC.
Which of the following is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and must be corrected to restore spontaneous circulation.
Correct. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and must be corrected to restore spontaneous circulation.
How many seconds should a pulse check take during cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Pulse checks should be limited to 5-10 seconds to minimize interruptions in chest compressions.
Correct. Pulse checks should be limited to 5-10 seconds to minimize interruptions in chest compressions.
What is the recommended energy setting for synchronized cardioversion in narrow, irregular tachycardia?
Incorrect. For unstable narrow, irregular tachycardias, synchronized cardioversion at 120-200 J is recommended.
Correct. For unstable narrow, irregular tachycardias, synchronized cardioversion at 120-200 J is recommended.
The goal oxygen saturation during post-cardiac arrest care is 100%.
Incorrect. The target oxygen saturation is 92-96% to avoid hyperoxia, which can contribute to oxidative injury.
Correct. The target oxygen saturation is 92-96% to avoid hyperoxia, which can contribute to oxidative injury.
What is the recommended compression depth for pediatric CPR?
Incorrect. Compressing to one-third the depth of the chest ensures adequate perfusion while minimizing the risk of injury.
Correct. Compressing to one-third the depth of the chest ensures adequate perfusion while minimizing the risk of injury.
What is the treatment for symptomatic bradycardia unresponsive to atropine?
Incorrect. Provides external electrical stimuli to maintain adequate heart rate when atropine fails.
Correct. Provides external electrical stimuli to maintain adequate heart rate when atropine fails.
How should you confirm the placement of an endotracheal tube?
Incorrect. Waveform capnography ensures proper ET tube placement by continuously monitoring exhaled CO? levels.
Correct. Waveform capnography ensures proper ET tube placement by continuously monitoring exhaled CO? levels.
How often should rescuers switch roles during CPR?
Incorrect. Rescuers should switch every 2 minutes to prevent fatigue and ensure high-quality compressions are maintained.
Correct. Rescuers should switch every 2 minutes to prevent fatigue and ensure high-quality compressions are maintained.
What is the recommended action after ROSC is achieved?
Incorrect. Oxygen levels should be monitored and optimized to maintain saturation within the target range of 92-96%.
Correct. Oxygen levels should be monitored and optimized to maintain saturation within the target range of 92-96%.
What is the target oxygen saturation during CPR?
Incorrect. Maintaining oxygen saturation within this range ensures adequate oxygenation without the risk of hyperoxia.
Correct. Maintaining oxygen saturation within this range ensures adequate oxygenation without the risk of hyperoxia.
How should you position a patient for defibrillation?
Incorrect. A supine position ensures proper electrode placement and effective delivery of defibrillation shocks.
Correct. A supine position ensures proper electrode placement and effective delivery of defibrillation shocks.
What is the recommended oxygen saturation target during ROSC?
Incorrect. Reduces the risk of oxidative stress and worsened outcomes by preventing hyperoxia.
Correct. Reduces the risk of oxidative stress and worsened outcomes by preventing hyperoxia.
Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for torsades de pointes.
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate is the first-line treatment for torsades de pointes as it stabilizes the myocardium.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate is the first-line treatment for torsades de pointes as it stabilizes the myocardium.
How many rescuers are required for high-quality CPR with advanced airway management?
Incorrect. Two rescuers are needed to maintain high-quality CPR with an advanced airway: one for compressions and one for ventilation.
Correct. Two rescuers are needed to maintain high-quality CPR with an advanced airway: one for compressions and one for ventilation.
The compression fraction during CPR should be >60% for effective resuscitation.
Incorrect. The compression fraction should be greater than 80% to maximize perfusion during CPR.
Correct. The compression fraction should be greater than 80% to maximize perfusion during CPR.
What is the recommended initial energy for pediatric defibrillation?
Incorrect. Pediatric defibrillation starts with 2 J/kg, increasing to 4 J/kg for subsequent shocks if needed.
Correct. Pediatric defibrillation starts with 2 J/kg, increasing to 4 J/kg for subsequent shocks if needed.
Synchronized cardioversion is indicated for unstable ventricular tachycardia with a pulse.
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion restores organized cardiac activity in unstable VT with a pulse, preventing progression to VF.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion restores organized cardiac activity in unstable VT with a pulse, preventing progression to VF.
How should you treat VF if it persists after 3 shocks?
Incorrect. Epinephrine is given to improve perfusion pressure and increase the chance of ROSC in persistent VF.
Correct. Epinephrine is given to improve perfusion pressure and increase the chance of ROSC in persistent VF.
What is the goal compression fraction for high-quality CPR?
Incorrect. A compression fraction above 80% ensures that most of the resuscitation time is spent performing chest compressions.
Correct. A compression fraction above 80% ensures that most of the resuscitation time is spent performing chest compressions.
What is the drug of choice for stable wide-complex tachycardia?
Incorrect. Amiodarone is used to stabilize wide-complex tachycardias in stable patients to prevent deterioration into cardiac arrest.
Correct. Amiodarone is used to stabilize wide-complex tachycardias in stable patients to prevent deterioration into cardiac arrest.
What is the initial dose of adenosine for pediatric SVT?
Incorrect. Adenosine is administered as a 0.1 mg/kg rapid IV push for pediatric SVT, followed by a saline flush.
Correct. Adenosine is administered as a 0.1 mg/kg rapid IV push for pediatric SVT, followed by a saline flush.
What is the next action after ROSC is achieved?
Incorrect. Post-ROSC care focuses on maintaining oxygenation and avoiding hypoxia or hyperoxia to protect organ function.
Correct. Post-ROSC care focuses on maintaining oxygenation and avoiding hypoxia or hyperoxia to protect organ function.
How should chest compressions be performed on a patient with an advanced airway?
Incorrect. Continuous chest compressions are performed while ventilations are delivered every 6 seconds when an advanced airway is in place.
Correct. Continuous chest compressions are performed while ventilations are delivered every 6 seconds when an advanced airway is in place.
Adenosine is the first-line drug for treating unstable SVT.
Incorrect. Adenosine is the first-line drug for stable SVT, while synchronized cardioversion is used for unstable SVT.
Correct. Adenosine is the first-line drug for stable SVT, while synchronized cardioversion is used for unstable SVT.
Chest compressions should be paused for at least 15 seconds to deliver a shock.
Incorrect. Chest compressions should be paused for less than 10 seconds to minimize interruptions during CPR when delivering a shock.
Correct. Chest compressions should be paused for less than 10 seconds to minimize interruptions during CPR when delivering a shock.
How soon should defibrillation be performed in witnessed VF?
Incorrect. Rapid defibrillation within 1 minute of witnessed VF increases the likelihood of survival and ROSC.
Correct. Rapid defibrillation within 1 minute of witnessed VF increases the likelihood of survival and ROSC.
What drug is used for torsades de pointes during ACLS?
Incorrect. Stabilizes the myocardial membrane and prevents arrhythmias.
Correct. Stabilizes the myocardial membrane and prevents arrhythmias.
What is the primary intervention for symptomatic bradycardia?
Incorrect. Atropine is the first-line treatment for symptomatic bradycardia, increasing the heart rate by blocking vagal stimulation.
Correct. Atropine is the first-line treatment for symptomatic bradycardia, increasing the heart rate by blocking vagal stimulation.
