Congratulations on completing FirstAidWebโs ACLS Provider Certification Course! Youโve invested the time, effort, and commitmentโnow itโs time to secure your certification.
This exam isnโt meant to trick you. Itโs designed to confirm your understanding of the material. Take a breath, get focused, and review the key details below before you begin.
During CPR, rescuers should rotate roles every 5 minutes to reduce fatigue.
Incorrect. Rescuers should switch roles every 2 minutes to maintain high-quality chest compressions and prevent fatigue.
Correct. Rescuers should switch roles every 2 minutes to maintain high-quality chest compressions and prevent fatigue.
How many chest compressions should be delivered per minute in high-quality CPR?
Incorrect. A rate of 100-120 compressions per minute optimizes perfusion without compromising cardiac filling.
Correct. A rate of 100-120 compressions per minute optimizes perfusion without compromising cardiac filling.
The maximum dose of atropine for bradycardia is 3 mg.
Incorrect. Atropine is given at a dose of 0.5 mg every 3-5 minutes during bradycardia, up to a maximum dose of 3 mg.
Correct. Atropine is given at a dose of 0.5 mg every 3-5 minutes during bradycardia, up to a maximum dose of 3 mg.
How often should rhythm checks occur during ongoing CPR?
Incorrect. Rhythm checks should be performed every 2 minutes, coinciding with rescuer role switches, to evaluate for shockable rhythms.
Correct. Rhythm checks should be performed every 2 minutes, coinciding with rescuer role switches, to evaluate for shockable rhythms.
What is the recommended action after ROSC is achieved?
Incorrect. Oxygenation and ventilation should be optimized to avoid hypoxia or hyperoxia during post-cardiac arrest care.
Correct. Oxygenation and ventilation should be optimized to avoid hypoxia or hyperoxia during post-cardiac arrest care.
What is the recommended oxygen saturation goal during post-cardiac arrest care?
Incorrect. Oxygen saturation should be maintained at 92-96% to prevent hypoxia and avoid the harmful effects of hyperoxia.
Correct. Oxygen saturation should be maintained at 92-96% to prevent hypoxia and avoid the harmful effects of hyperoxia.
What is the primary intervention for ROSC?
Incorrect. Post-ROSC care focuses on stabilizing ventilation and oxygenation to prevent hypoxia or hyperoxia.
Correct. Post-ROSC care focuses on stabilizing ventilation and oxygenation to prevent hypoxia or hyperoxia.
What is the recommended initial dose of epinephrine in anaphylaxis?
Incorrect. IM epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis, administered into the mid-thigh for rapid absorption.
Correct. IM epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis, administered into the mid-thigh for rapid absorption.
Which rhythm is not shockable?
Incorrect. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm treated with high-quality CPR and epinephrine.
Correct. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm treated with high-quality CPR and epinephrine.
What is the initial step in the BLS survey?
Incorrect. Assessing responsiveness is the first step in determining the need for CPR or other interventions in the BLS survey.
Correct. Assessing responsiveness is the first step in determining the need for CPR or other interventions in the BLS survey.
What is the recommended maximum interval for chest compression interruptions?
Incorrect. Minimizing interruptions to less than 10 seconds preserves perfusion and improves resuscitation outcomes.
Correct. Minimizing interruptions to less than 10 seconds preserves perfusion and improves resuscitation outcomes.
What is the purpose of targeted temperature management (TTM)?
Incorrect. TTM prevents further neurological injury by maintaining a controlled core temperature after ROSC.
Correct. TTM prevents further neurological injury by maintaining a controlled core temperature after ROSC.
Which rhythm is non-shockable during cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. PEA is treated with CPR and epinephrine, as defibrillation is ineffective for non-shockable rhythms.
Correct. PEA is treated with CPR and epinephrine, as defibrillation is ineffective for non-shockable rhythms.
What is the recommended compression depth for pediatric CPR?
Incorrect. Compressing to one-third the depth of the chest ensures adequate perfusion while minimizing the risk of injury.
Correct. Compressing to one-third the depth of the chest ensures adequate perfusion while minimizing the risk of injury.
A jaw-thrust maneuver is preferred over a head tilt-chin lift for trauma patients.
Incorrect. The jaw-thrust avoids neck movement, making it the preferred airway technique for patients with suspected cervical spine injuries.
Correct. The jaw-thrust avoids neck movement, making it the preferred airway technique for patients with suspected cervical spine injuries.
High-quality CPR requires a compression fraction of >80%.
Incorrect. A compression fraction >80% ensures that the majority of CPR time is spent delivering chest compressions to improve outcomes.
Correct. A compression fraction >80% ensures that the majority of CPR time is spent delivering chest compressions to improve outcomes.
What is the treatment for severe hyperkalemia during ACLS?
Incorrect. Calcium gluconate stabilizes the cardiac membrane and reduces the risk of life-threatening arrhythmias caused by hyperkalemia.
Correct. Calcium gluconate stabilizes the cardiac membrane and reduces the risk of life-threatening arrhythmias caused by hyperkalemia.
Which drug can increase the heart rate in symptomatic bradycardia?
Incorrect. Atropine blocks vagal stimulation, increasing heart rate in cases of symptomatic bradycardia.
Correct. Atropine blocks vagal stimulation, increasing heart rate in cases of symptomatic bradycardia.
How many cycles of CPR should be completed before reassessing the rhythm?
Incorrect. Two minutes of CPR (about 5 cycles of 30 compressions and 2 breaths) should be completed before checking the rhythm.
Correct. Two minutes of CPR (about 5 cycles of 30 compressions and 2 breaths) should be completed before checking the rhythm.
What is the maximum pause duration between chest compressions?
Incorrect. Pausing compressions for more than 10 seconds interrupts perfusion and reduces the chances of ROSC.
Correct. Pausing compressions for more than 10 seconds interrupts perfusion and reduces the chances of ROSC.
What is the appropriate energy setting for defibrillation in adults?
Incorrect. Biphasic defibrillators deliver effective shocks within the range of 120-200 J to treat VF or pulseless VT.
Correct. Biphasic defibrillators deliver effective shocks within the range of 120-200 J to treat VF or pulseless VT.
What is the compression-to-ventilation ratio for pediatric CPR with one rescuer?
Incorrect. A single rescuer performs 30 compressions followed by 2 breaths to maximize perfusion and oxygenation in pediatric CPR.
Correct. A single rescuer performs 30 compressions followed by 2 breaths to maximize perfusion and oxygenation in pediatric CPR.
The recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR without an advanced airway is 30:2.
Incorrect. A 30:2 ratio ensures sufficient oxygenation and circulation in adults during CPR without an advanced airway.
Correct. A 30:2 ratio ensures sufficient oxygenation and circulation in adults during CPR without an advanced airway.
What is the recommended action for a choking infant who becomes unresponsive?
Incorrect. Chest compressions are performed to dislodge the obstruction and restore effective ventilation in an unresponsive infant.
Correct. Chest compressions are performed to dislodge the obstruction and restore effective ventilation in an unresponsive infant.
Epinephrine is administered every 5-10 minutes during cardiac arrest.
Incorrect. Epinephrine is administered every 3-5 minutes during cardiac arrest to maximize coronary and cerebral perfusion.
Correct. Epinephrine is administered every 3-5 minutes during cardiac arrest to maximize coronary and cerebral perfusion.
Which of the following is part of the "H's" for reversible cardiac arrest causes?
Incorrect. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be addressed during resuscitation efforts.
Correct. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be addressed during resuscitation efforts.
What is the recommended interval for ventilation during advanced airway CPR?
Incorrect. Ventilation with an advanced airway should be provided at a rate of 1 breath every 6 seconds, or 10 breaths per minute.
Correct. Ventilation with an advanced airway should be provided at a rate of 1 breath every 6 seconds, or 10 breaths per minute.
What is the appropriate dose of lidocaine for refractory VF?
Incorrect. Lidocaine is an alternative antiarrhythmic for refractory VF, dosed at 1 mg/kg IV/IO.
Correct. Lidocaine is an alternative antiarrhythmic for refractory VF, dosed at 1 mg/kg IV/IO.
What is the treatment for unstable atrial fibrillation?
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion is used to restore a normal rhythm in unstable atrial fibrillation.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion is used to restore a normal rhythm in unstable atrial fibrillation.
The recommended compression depth for adult CPR is 2-2.4 inches.
Incorrect. Compressing to a depth of 2-2.4 inches ensures adequate circulation without causing damage to internal organs.
Correct. Compressing to a depth of 2-2.4 inches ensures adequate circulation without causing damage to internal organs.
Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for torsades de pointes.
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate is the first-line treatment for torsades de pointes as it stabilizes the myocardium.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate is the first-line treatment for torsades de pointes as it stabilizes the myocardium.
What is the next step after identifying a shockable rhythm?
Incorrect. Delivers an electrical shock to depolarize the heart and restore a normal rhythm.
Correct. Delivers an electrical shock to depolarize the heart and restore a normal rhythm.
The initial dose of amiodarone for refractory VF is 300 mg IV/IO.
Incorrect. Amiodarone 300 mg IV/IO is administered after defibrillation and epinephrine to treat refractory VF or pulseless VT.
Correct. Amiodarone 300 mg IV/IO is administered after defibrillation and epinephrine to treat refractory VF or pulseless VT.
What is the maximum dose of atropine for bradycardia?
Incorrect. Atropine doses should not exceed 3 mg during bradycardia management to avoid adverse effects.
Correct. Atropine doses should not exceed 3 mg during bradycardia management to avoid adverse effects.
What is the appropriate depth for chest compressions in adults?
Incorrect. Compressing 2-2.4 inches ensures effective perfusion during adult CPR while minimizing the risk of injury.
Correct. Compressing 2-2.4 inches ensures effective perfusion during adult CPR while minimizing the risk of injury.
How many cycles of CPR are recommended before rhythm reassessment?
Incorrect. Two minutes of CPR (about 5 cycles of 30 compressions and 2 breaths) should be performed before reassessing the rhythm.
Correct. Two minutes of CPR (about 5 cycles of 30 compressions and 2 breaths) should be performed before reassessing the rhythm.
What is the maximum dose of lidocaine in ACLS?
Incorrect. Lidocaine is an antiarrhythmic drug used as an alternative to amiodarone for VF or pulseless VT.
Correct. Lidocaine is an antiarrhythmic drug used as an alternative to amiodarone for VF or pulseless VT.
A compression fraction of >60% is recommended for high-quality CPR.
Incorrect. A compression fraction >80% is required to maximize perfusion and improve survival rates during high-quality CPR.
Correct. A compression fraction >80% is required to maximize perfusion and improve survival rates during high-quality CPR.
How often should rescuers switch roles during CPR?
Incorrect. Rescuers should switch every 2 minutes to prevent fatigue and ensure high-quality compressions are maintained.
Correct. Rescuers should switch every 2 minutes to prevent fatigue and ensure high-quality compressions are maintained.
What is the preferred initial action for pulseless electrical activity?
Incorrect. High-quality CPR is the primary intervention for PEA, followed by epinephrine administration and addressing reversible causes.
Correct. High-quality CPR is the primary intervention for PEA, followed by epinephrine administration and addressing reversible causes.
What is the first drug given for VF or pulseless VT?
Incorrect. Epinephrine is administered after defibrillation to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion during resuscitation.
Correct. Epinephrine is administered after defibrillation to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion during resuscitation.
Amiodarone and lidocaine are both used for refractory VF during cardiac arrest.
Incorrect. Amiodarone is preferred, but lidocaine is an alternative antiarrhythmic for refractory VF or pulseless VT.
Correct. Amiodarone is preferred, but lidocaine is an alternative antiarrhythmic for refractory VF or pulseless VT.
Ventricular fibrillation is considered a shockable rhythm.
Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore an organized cardiac rhythm.
Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore an organized cardiac rhythm.
What is the proper position for chest compressions on an adult?
Incorrect. Placing hands on the lower half of the sternum ensures effective chest compressions without damaging other structures.
Correct. Placing hands on the lower half of the sternum ensures effective chest compressions without damaging other structures.
How soon should defibrillation be performed in witnessed VF?
Incorrect. Rapid defibrillation within 1 minute of witnessed VF increases the likelihood of survival and ROSC.
Correct. Rapid defibrillation within 1 minute of witnessed VF increases the likelihood of survival and ROSC.
What is the recommended energy setting for synchronized cardioversion in narrow, irregular tachycardia?
Incorrect. For unstable narrow, irregular tachycardias, synchronized cardioversion at 120-200 J is recommended.
Correct. For unstable narrow, irregular tachycardias, synchronized cardioversion at 120-200 J is recommended.
What is the compression rate for pediatric CPR?
Incorrect. The same compression rate as adults ensures adequate perfusion in pediatric patients during CPR.
Correct. The same compression rate as adults ensures adequate perfusion in pediatric patients during CPR.
What is the correct response if a shockable rhythm persists after the first shock?
Incorrect. High-quality CPR should be resumed immediately after a shock to maintain perfusion and increase the likelihood of ROSC.
Correct. High-quality CPR should be resumed immediately after a shock to maintain perfusion and increase the likelihood of ROSC.
What is the maximum dose of atropine for adult bradycardia?
Incorrect. Atropine should not exceed a total dose of 3 mg when treating symptomatic bradycardia in adults.
Correct. Atropine should not exceed a total dose of 3 mg when treating symptomatic bradycardia in adults.
What should you do if defibrillation is unsuccessful?
Incorrect. High-quality CPR should be resumed immediately after defibrillation to maintain perfusion and increase chances of ROSC.
Correct. High-quality CPR should be resumed immediately after defibrillation to maintain perfusion and increase chances of ROSC.
How should chest compressions be performed in pregnant patients?
Incorrect. Positioning the patient with a slight left tilt prevents aortocaval compression and improves venous return during CPR.
Correct. Positioning the patient with a slight left tilt prevents aortocaval compression and improves venous return during CPR.
What is the recommended initial dose of adenosine for adults?
Incorrect. Adenosine is administered as a 6 mg rapid IV push, followed by a saline flush, to terminate reentrant arrhythmias.
Correct. Adenosine is administered as a 6 mg rapid IV push, followed by a saline flush, to terminate reentrant arrhythmias.
The ideal pulse check duration during CPR is 10-15 seconds.
Incorrect. Pulse checks during CPR should not exceed 10 seconds to minimize interruptions in chest compressions.
Correct. Pulse checks during CPR should not exceed 10 seconds to minimize interruptions in chest compressions.
Which rhythm is shockable in cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
Correct. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
The recommended compression rate for CPR is 100-120 compressions per minute.
Incorrect. A rate of 100-120 compressions per minute ensures adequate circulation without risking incomplete recoil or excessive fatigue.
Correct. A rate of 100-120 compressions per minute ensures adequate circulation without risking incomplete recoil or excessive fatigue.
The correct defibrillation dose for adults using a biphasic defibrillator is 120-200 J.
Incorrect. Biphasic defibrillation begins at 120-200 J to terminate shockable rhythms like VF and pulseless VT effectively.
Correct. Biphasic defibrillation begins at 120-200 J to terminate shockable rhythms like VF and pulseless VT effectively.
Amiodarone is the first-line drug for treating ventricular fibrillation.
Incorrect. Epinephrine is given first in VF during cardiac arrest, followed by amiodarone as an antiarrhythmic after defibrillation attempts.
Correct. Epinephrine is given first in VF during cardiac arrest, followed by amiodarone as an antiarrhythmic after defibrillation attempts.
ROSC should be followed by immediate reassessment of the patientโs rhythm and ventilation.
Incorrect. Following ROSC, immediate reassessment ensures stability of the patientโs rhythm, oxygenation, and ventilation.
Correct. Following ROSC, immediate reassessment ensures stability of the patientโs rhythm, oxygenation, and ventilation.
Which of the following is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and must be corrected to restore spontaneous circulation.
Correct. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and must be corrected to restore spontaneous circulation.
The initial dose of adenosine for treating stable SVT in adults is 12 mg IV.
Incorrect. The initial dose of adenosine for stable SVT in adults is 6 mg IV, followed by 12 mg if needed for subsequent doses.
Correct. The initial dose of adenosine for stable SVT in adults is 6 mg IV, followed by 12 mg if needed for subsequent doses.
What is the correct dose of epinephrine for pediatric cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Epinephrine is administered every 3-5 minutes during pediatric cardiac arrest to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion.
Correct. Epinephrine is administered every 3-5 minutes during pediatric cardiac arrest to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion.
The correct dose of epinephrine for pediatric cardiac arrest is 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO.
Incorrect. Epinephrine at 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO is administered every 3-5 minutes to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion in children.
Correct. Epinephrine at 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO is administered every 3-5 minutes to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion in children.
What is the best indicator of ROSC during CPR?
Incorrect. A sudden increase in PETCO2 is a reliable indicator of ROSC, reflecting improved circulation and gas exchange.
Correct. A sudden increase in PETCO2 is a reliable indicator of ROSC, reflecting improved circulation and gas exchange.
What is the compression-to-ventilation ratio for pediatric CPR with two rescuers?
Incorrect. A 15:2 ratio is used during pediatric CPR with two rescuers to optimize ventilation and circulation.
Correct. A 15:2 ratio is used during pediatric CPR with two rescuers to optimize ventilation and circulation.
What is the primary goal during post-cardiac arrest care?
Incorrect. Oxygenation and ventilation should be closely monitored to prevent hypoxia and hyperoxia.
Correct. Oxygenation and ventilation should be closely monitored to prevent hypoxia and hyperoxia.
