Congratulations on completing FirstAidWeb’s ACLS Provider Certification Course! You’ve invested the time, effort, and commitment—now it’s time to secure your certification.
This exam isn’t meant to trick you. It’s designed to confirm your understanding of the material. Take a breath, get focused, and review the key details below before you begin.
What is the appropriate energy setting for defibrillation in adults?
Incorrect. Biphasic defibrillators deliver effective shocks within the range of 120-200 J to treat VF or pulseless VT.
Correct. Biphasic defibrillators deliver effective shocks within the range of 120-200 J to treat VF or pulseless VT.
What is the recommended initial dose of epinephrine in anaphylaxis?
Incorrect. IM epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis, administered into the mid-thigh for rapid absorption.
Correct. IM epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis, administered into the mid-thigh for rapid absorption.
Ventricular fibrillation is considered a shockable rhythm.
Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore an organized cardiac rhythm.
Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore an organized cardiac rhythm.
What is the target oxygen saturation during CPR?
Incorrect. Maintaining oxygen saturation within this range ensures adequate oxygenation without the risk of hyperoxia.
Correct. Maintaining oxygen saturation within this range ensures adequate oxygenation without the risk of hyperoxia.
The recommended oxygen saturation target during post-cardiac arrest care is 92-96%.
Incorrect. Maintaining oxygen saturation at 92-96% avoids hypoxia while preventing hyperoxia, which can cause further tissue damage.
Correct. Maintaining oxygen saturation at 92-96% avoids hypoxia while preventing hyperoxia, which can cause further tissue damage.
What is the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio during CPR?
Incorrect. For adult CPR, the ratio ensures adequate perfusion and oxygenation when no advanced airway is in place.
Correct. For adult CPR, the ratio ensures adequate perfusion and oxygenation when no advanced airway is in place.
What is the target PETCO2 during high-quality CPR?
Incorrect. Indicates effective chest compressions and blood circulation during resuscitation.
Correct. Indicates effective chest compressions and blood circulation during resuscitation.
PETCO2 monitoring can help assess the effectiveness of chest compressions.
Incorrect. PETCO2 >10 mmHg during CPR indicates effective chest compressions generating sufficient circulation.
Correct. PETCO2 >10 mmHg during CPR indicates effective chest compressions generating sufficient circulation.
What is the dose of atropine for bradycardia?
Incorrect. First-line treatment to block vagal stimulation and increase heart rate.
Correct. First-line treatment to block vagal stimulation and increase heart rate.
What is the most common cause of PEA?
Incorrect. Hypoxia is a reversible cause of PEA; it must be treated immediately with oxygenation and ventilation.
Correct. Hypoxia is a reversible cause of PEA; it must be treated immediately with oxygenation and ventilation.
The compression fraction during CPR should be >60% for effective resuscitation.
Incorrect. The compression fraction should be greater than 80% to maximize perfusion during CPR.
Correct. The compression fraction should be greater than 80% to maximize perfusion during CPR.
What is the correct dose of epinephrine for pediatric cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Epinephrine at 0.01 mg/kg is administered every 3-5 minutes during pediatric cardiac arrest to improve coronary perfusion.
Correct. Epinephrine at 0.01 mg/kg is administered every 3-5 minutes during pediatric cardiac arrest to improve coronary perfusion.
What is the most common reversible cause of cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Hypovolemia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be corrected with fluid resuscitation.
Correct. Hypovolemia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be corrected with fluid resuscitation.
Defibrillation should be attempted within 30 seconds for a witnessed VF arrest.
Incorrect. Prompt defibrillation within 30 seconds of witnessed VF arrest improves the chance of restoring a perfusing rhythm.
Correct. Prompt defibrillation within 30 seconds of witnessed VF arrest improves the chance of restoring a perfusing rhythm.
What rhythm requires immediate defibrillation?
Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized electrical activity.
Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized electrical activity.
What is the best indicator of ROSC during CPR?
Incorrect. A sudden increase in PETCO2 is a reliable indicator of ROSC, reflecting improved circulation and gas exchange.
Correct. A sudden increase in PETCO2 is a reliable indicator of ROSC, reflecting improved circulation and gas exchange.
How often should you assess the rhythm during ongoing CPR?
Incorrect. Rhythm checks are performed every 2 minutes during pauses in CPR to evaluate for shockable rhythms.
Correct. Rhythm checks are performed every 2 minutes during pauses in CPR to evaluate for shockable rhythms.
What is the maximum interval between defibrillation attempts during CPR?
Incorrect. Defibrillation attempts should be separated by 2-minute CPR cycles to ensure effective perfusion and rhythm evaluation.
Correct. Defibrillation attempts should be separated by 2-minute CPR cycles to ensure effective perfusion and rhythm evaluation.
What is the recommended energy dose for defibrillation in adults using a biphasic defibrillator?
Incorrect. Biphasic defibrillators deliver effective shocks within the range of 120-200 J, restoring organized electrical activity.
Correct. Biphasic defibrillators deliver effective shocks within the range of 120-200 J, restoring organized electrical activity.
PETCO2 levels >10 mmHg during CPR suggest effective chest compressions.
Incorrect. A PETCO2 reading above 10 mmHg indicates that chest compressions are generating sufficient circulation during CPR.
Correct. A PETCO2 reading above 10 mmHg indicates that chest compressions are generating sufficient circulation during CPR.
Incorrect. Hypoxia is the most frequent reversible cause of PEA and should be addressed immediately with oxygenation and ventilation.
Correct. Hypoxia is the most frequent reversible cause of PEA and should be addressed immediately with oxygenation and ventilation.
Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
What is the initial defibrillation dose for pediatric cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Pediatric defibrillation begins at 2 J/kg for the first shock and increases as necessary for subsequent shocks.
Correct. Pediatric defibrillation begins at 2 J/kg for the first shock and increases as necessary for subsequent shocks.
What is the maximum energy dose for defibrillation in adults?
Incorrect. Maximum energy for monophasic defibrillators; for biphasic, follow manufacturer recommendations.
Correct. Maximum energy for monophasic defibrillators; for biphasic, follow manufacturer recommendations.
The recommended compression depth for adult CPR is 2-2.4 inches.
Incorrect. Compressing to a depth of 2-2.4 inches ensures adequate circulation without causing damage to internal organs.
Correct. Compressing to a depth of 2-2.4 inches ensures adequate circulation without causing damage to internal organs.
The proper ventilation rate during advanced airway CPR is 6-8 breaths per minute.
Incorrect. Delivering 6-8 breaths per minute ensures adequate oxygenation without hyperventilation during CPR with an advanced airway.
Correct. Delivering 6-8 breaths per minute ensures adequate oxygenation without hyperventilation during CPR with an advanced airway.
Amiodarone is the first-line drug for treating ventricular fibrillation.
Incorrect. Epinephrine is given first in VF during cardiac arrest, followed by amiodarone as an antiarrhythmic after defibrillation attempts.
Correct. Epinephrine is given first in VF during cardiac arrest, followed by amiodarone as an antiarrhythmic after defibrillation attempts.
Chest compressions should be paused for at least 15 seconds to deliver a shock.
Incorrect. Chest compressions should be paused for less than 10 seconds to minimize interruptions during CPR when delivering a shock.
Correct. Chest compressions should be paused for less than 10 seconds to minimize interruptions during CPR when delivering a shock.
PETCO2 monitoring is used to confirm effective ventilation and chest compressions.
Incorrect. PETCO2 monitoring helps assess the effectiveness of both ventilation and chest compressions in real-time during CPR.
Correct. PETCO2 monitoring helps assess the effectiveness of both ventilation and chest compressions in real-time during CPR.
What is the correct energy setting for synchronized cardioversion in unstable VT?
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion at 100 J is effective for restoring a stable rhythm in unstable ventricular tachycardia.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion at 100 J is effective for restoring a stable rhythm in unstable ventricular tachycardia.
PETCO2 levels >10 mmHg during CPR indicate high-quality chest compressions.
Incorrect. PETCO2 levels greater than 10 mmHg suggest that chest compressions are generating adequate circulation.
Correct. PETCO2 levels greater than 10 mmHg suggest that chest compressions are generating adequate circulation.
What is the recommended ventilation rate during CPR for adults with an advanced airway?
Incorrect. Delivering 6-8 breaths per minute minimizes interruptions in chest compressions and prevents hyperventilation.
Correct. Delivering 6-8 breaths per minute minimizes interruptions in chest compressions and prevents hyperventilation.
Chest compressions should be paused to deliver ventilation during advanced airway CPR.
Incorrect. With an advanced airway in place, compressions continue uninterrupted while breaths are delivered at 6-8 breaths per minute.
Correct. With an advanced airway in place, compressions continue uninterrupted while breaths are delivered at 6-8 breaths per minute.
How should you position an unconscious patient with a suspected spinal injury?
Incorrect. The jaw thrust technique opens the airway while minimizing cervical spine movement, reducing the risk of further injury.
Correct. The jaw thrust technique opens the airway while minimizing cervical spine movement, reducing the risk of further injury.
What is the recommended initial energy for pediatric defibrillation?
Incorrect. Pediatric defibrillation starts with 2 J/kg, increasing to 4 J/kg for subsequent shocks if needed.
Correct. Pediatric defibrillation starts with 2 J/kg, increasing to 4 J/kg for subsequent shocks if needed.
The correct dose of adenosine for pediatric SVT is 0.1 mg/kg IV.
Incorrect. Adenosine is administered at 0.1 mg/kg as a rapid IV push for terminating narrow-complex SVT caused by reentrant pathways.
Correct. Adenosine is administered at 0.1 mg/kg as a rapid IV push for terminating narrow-complex SVT caused by reentrant pathways.
What is the first step in managing a patient with asystole?
Incorrect. Immediate CPR is required as asystole is a non-shockable rhythm.
Correct. Immediate CPR is required as asystole is a non-shockable rhythm.
What is the first-line treatment for narrow-complex tachycardia?
Incorrect. Vagal maneuvers stimulate the vagus nerve, often terminating reentrant arrhythmias causing narrow-complex tachycardia.
Correct. Vagal maneuvers stimulate the vagus nerve, often terminating reentrant arrhythmias causing narrow-complex tachycardia.
A jaw-thrust maneuver is preferred over a head tilt-chin lift for trauma patients.
Incorrect. The jaw-thrust avoids neck movement, making it the preferred airway technique for patients with suspected cervical spine injuries.
Correct. The jaw-thrust avoids neck movement, making it the preferred airway technique for patients with suspected cervical spine injuries.
Which rhythm requires defibrillation?
Incorrect. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm that requires immediate defibrillation to restore a perfusing rhythm.
Correct. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm that requires immediate defibrillation to restore a perfusing rhythm.
What is the first drug given for VF or pulseless VT?
Incorrect. Epinephrine is administered after defibrillation to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion during resuscitation.
Correct. Epinephrine is administered after defibrillation to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion during resuscitation.
What is the appropriate interval for rhythm checks during CPR?
Incorrect. Rhythm checks are performed every 2 minutes to evaluate for shockable rhythms and assess the need for defibrillation.
Correct. Rhythm checks are performed every 2 minutes to evaluate for shockable rhythms and assess the need for defibrillation.
What is the preferred treatment for unstable SVT?
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion is used to terminate unstable SVT by restoring normal electrical activity in the heart.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion is used to terminate unstable SVT by restoring normal electrical activity in the heart.
What is the maximum pause allowed for chest compressions during CPR?
Incorrect. Interruptions in chest compressions should be minimized to less than 10 seconds to maintain adequate perfusion.
Correct. Interruptions in chest compressions should be minimized to less than 10 seconds to maintain adequate perfusion.
What is the recommended action for a patient in asystole?
Incorrect. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring immediate high-quality CPR and administration of epinephrine.
Correct. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring immediate high-quality CPR and administration of epinephrine.
How long should a pulse check take during CPR?
Incorrect. Avoid delays to minimize interruptions in chest compressions and maintain perfusion.
Correct. Avoid delays to minimize interruptions in chest compressions and maintain perfusion.
What is the appropriate action for PEA?
Incorrect. CPR is the primary intervention for PEA, followed by epinephrine and identification of reversible causes.
Correct. CPR is the primary intervention for PEA, followed by epinephrine and identification of reversible causes.
How should you confirm ET tube placement in a patient?
Incorrect. Waveform capnography ensures proper ET tube placement by monitoring exhaled CO? levels.
Correct. Waveform capnography ensures proper ET tube placement by monitoring exhaled CO? levels.
What is the recommended initial dose of adenosine for adults?
Incorrect. Adenosine is administered as a 6 mg rapid IV push, followed by a saline flush, to terminate reentrant arrhythmias.
Correct. Adenosine is administered as a 6 mg rapid IV push, followed by a saline flush, to terminate reentrant arrhythmias.
What is the appropriate depth for chest compressions in adults?
Incorrect. Compressing 2-2.4 inches ensures effective perfusion during adult CPR while minimizing the risk of injury.
Correct. Compressing 2-2.4 inches ensures effective perfusion during adult CPR while minimizing the risk of injury.
What is the best method to monitor the quality of CPR?
Incorrect. PETCO2 monitoring provides real-time feedback on chest compressions and the effectiveness of CPR.
Correct. PETCO2 monitoring provides real-time feedback on chest compressions and the effectiveness of CPR.
Defibrillation is contraindicated in patients with ventricular fibrillation.
Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm, and defibrillation is the primary treatment to restore an organized rhythm.
Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm, and defibrillation is the primary treatment to restore an organized rhythm.
Defibrillation should always be performed within 10 minutes of identifying VF.
Incorrect. Defibrillation should be performed immediately after identifying VF, not delayed up to 10 minutes.
Correct. Defibrillation should be performed immediately after identifying VF, not delayed up to 10 minutes.
Chest compressions should be performed at a rate of 80-100 compressions per minute.
Incorrect. The recommended rate for chest compressions is 100-120 compressions per minute to maximize perfusion.
Correct. The recommended rate for chest compressions is 100-120 compressions per minute to maximize perfusion.
What is the recommended ventilation rate during CPR without an advanced airway?
Incorrect. Delivering 10 breaths per minute ensures adequate oxygenation without causing hyperventilation.
Correct. Delivering 10 breaths per minute ensures adequate oxygenation without causing hyperventilation.
What is the recommended dose of adenosine for treating stable SVT in adults?
Incorrect. Adenosine is administered as a rapid IV push at an initial dose of 6 mg to terminate stable SVT.
Correct. Adenosine is administered as a rapid IV push at an initial dose of 6 mg to terminate stable SVT.
Waveform capnography is the preferred method to confirm endotracheal tube placement.
Incorrect. Waveform capnography provides real-time confirmation of ET tube placement and ensures proper ventilation.
Correct. Waveform capnography provides real-time confirmation of ET tube placement and ensures proper ventilation.
Magnesium sulfate is the first-line drug for ventricular fibrillation.
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate is used to treat torsades de pointes but is not the first-line drug for VF, where epinephrine is prioritized.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate is used to treat torsades de pointes but is not the first-line drug for VF, where epinephrine is prioritized.
What is the correct defibrillation dose for pediatric patients?
Incorrect. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg for the initial shock, increasing as needed based on the patient's response.
Correct. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg for the initial shock, increasing as needed based on the patient's response.
What is the appropriate interval for delivering epinephrine during cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Epinephrine is repeated every 3-5 minutes during cardiac arrest to enhance perfusion pressure.
Correct. Epinephrine is repeated every 3-5 minutes during cardiac arrest to enhance perfusion pressure.
Defibrillation is the treatment of choice for pulseless ventricular tachycardia.
Incorrect. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore an organized rhythm.
Correct. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore an organized rhythm.
During CPR with an advanced airway, chest compressions should continue uninterrupted.
Incorrect. With an advanced airway in place, uninterrupted compressions improve blood flow while ventilation is delivered separately.
Correct. With an advanced airway in place, uninterrupted compressions improve blood flow while ventilation is delivered separately.
Which condition is included in the "T's" of reversible cardiac arrest causes?
Incorrect. Thrombosis (pulmonary or coronary) is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be addressed immediately.
Correct. Thrombosis (pulmonary or coronary) is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be addressed immediately.
What is the recommended temperature range for TTM in ROSC?
Incorrect. Targeted temperature management improves neurological outcomes by preventing further brain injury.
Correct. Targeted temperature management improves neurological outcomes by preventing further brain injury.
What is the initial treatment for symptomatic bradycardia?
Incorrect. Atropine is the first-line drug for symptomatic bradycardia, increasing heart rate by blocking vagal stimulation.
Correct. Atropine is the first-line drug for symptomatic bradycardia, increasing heart rate by blocking vagal stimulation.
