Congratulations on completing FirstAidWebโs ACLS Provider Certification Course! Youโve invested the time, effort, and commitmentโnow itโs time to secure your certification.
This exam isnโt meant to trick you. Itโs designed to confirm your understanding of the material. Take a breath, get focused, and review the key details below before you begin.
How many breaths per minute should be delivered to an adult during advanced airway CPR?
Incorrect. Ventilations are delivered at a rate of 6-8 breaths per minute to prevent hyperventilation.
Correct. Ventilations are delivered at a rate of 6-8 breaths per minute to prevent hyperventilation.
Which condition is included in the "T's" of reversible cardiac arrest causes?
Incorrect. Thrombosis (pulmonary or coronary) is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be addressed immediately.
Correct. Thrombosis (pulmonary or coronary) is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be addressed immediately.
Naloxone should be administered to all cardiac arrest patients.
Incorrect. Naloxone is only used in cases of suspected opioid overdose and is not universally administered in cardiac arrest.
Correct. Naloxone is only used in cases of suspected opioid overdose and is not universally administered in cardiac arrest.
The recommended compression rate for CPR is 100-120 compressions per minute.
Incorrect. A rate of 100-120 compressions per minute ensures adequate circulation without risking incomplete recoil or excessive fatigue.
Correct. A rate of 100-120 compressions per minute ensures adequate circulation without risking incomplete recoil or excessive fatigue.
Continuous compressions should be provided during CPR with an advanced airway in place.
Incorrect. With an advanced airway, compressions continue uninterrupted while ventilation is provided at a rate of 10 breaths per minute.
Correct. With an advanced airway, compressions continue uninterrupted while ventilation is provided at a rate of 10 breaths per minute.
What is the correct energy setting for synchronized cardioversion in unstable VT?
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion at 100 J is effective for restoring a stable rhythm in unstable ventricular tachycardia.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion at 100 J is effective for restoring a stable rhythm in unstable ventricular tachycardia.
What is the appropriate rate of chest compressions for pediatric CPR?
Incorrect. A rate of 100-120 compressions per minute ensures adequate circulation in pediatric patients.
Correct. A rate of 100-120 compressions per minute ensures adequate circulation in pediatric patients.
How should compressions be performed for an infant during CPR?
Incorrect. The two-thumb encircling technique provides high-quality compressions for infants during CPR.
Correct. The two-thumb encircling technique provides high-quality compressions for infants during CPR.
What is the compression-to-ventilation ratio for pediatric CPR with two rescuers?
Incorrect. A 15:2 ratio is used during pediatric CPR with two rescuers to optimize ventilation and circulation.
Correct. A 15:2 ratio is used during pediatric CPR with two rescuers to optimize ventilation and circulation.
The correct dose of epinephrine for pediatric cardiac arrest is 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO.
Incorrect. Epinephrine at 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO is administered every 3-5 minutes to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion in children.
Correct. Epinephrine at 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO is administered every 3-5 minutes to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion in children.
What is the initial dose of adenosine for pediatric SVT?
Incorrect. Adenosine is administered as a 0.1 mg/kg rapid IV push for pediatric SVT, followed by a saline flush.
Correct. Adenosine is administered as a 0.1 mg/kg rapid IV push for pediatric SVT, followed by a saline flush.
The correct defibrillation dose for adults using a biphasic defibrillator is 120-200 J.
Incorrect. Biphasic defibrillation begins at 120-200 J to terminate shockable rhythms like VF and pulseless VT effectively.
Correct. Biphasic defibrillation begins at 120-200 J to terminate shockable rhythms like VF and pulseless VT effectively.
How often should rhythm checks occur during ongoing CPR?
Incorrect. Rhythm checks should be performed every 2 minutes, coinciding with rescuer role switches, to evaluate for shockable rhythms.
Correct. Rhythm checks should be performed every 2 minutes, coinciding with rescuer role switches, to evaluate for shockable rhythms.
What rhythm requires immediate defibrillation?
Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
What is the recommended action for a witnessed cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Immediate defibrillation is critical for shockable rhythms like ventricular fibrillation and pulseless VT.
Correct. Immediate defibrillation is critical for shockable rhythms like ventricular fibrillation and pulseless VT.
What is the compression-to-ventilation ratio for pediatric CPR with one rescuer?
Incorrect. A single rescuer performs 30 compressions followed by 2 breaths to maximize perfusion and oxygenation in pediatric CPR.
Correct. A single rescuer performs 30 compressions followed by 2 breaths to maximize perfusion and oxygenation in pediatric CPR.
What is the purpose of targeted temperature management (TTM)?
Incorrect. TTM prevents further neurological injury by maintaining a controlled core temperature after ROSC.
Correct. TTM prevents further neurological injury by maintaining a controlled core temperature after ROSC.
Which rhythm is not shockable?
Incorrect. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring high-quality CPR and epinephrine administration.
Correct. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring high-quality CPR and epinephrine administration.
What should be done immediately after defibrillation?
Incorrect. CPR should be resumed immediately after defibrillation to maintain perfusion and increase the likelihood of ROSC.
Correct. CPR should be resumed immediately after defibrillation to maintain perfusion and increase the likelihood of ROSC.
What is the compression fraction goal during CPR?
Incorrect. Maintaining a compression fraction above 80% ensures adequate blood flow during resuscitation.
Correct. Maintaining a compression fraction above 80% ensures adequate blood flow during resuscitation.
What is the recommended rate of chest compressions per minute?
Incorrect. Optimal for maintaining adequate circulation without risking poor perfusion due to excessive speed.
Correct. Optimal for maintaining adequate circulation without risking poor perfusion due to excessive speed.
Synchronized cardioversion is the treatment of choice for unstable atrial fibrillation.
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion is used for unstable atrial fibrillation to restore organized electrical activity.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion is used for unstable atrial fibrillation to restore organized electrical activity.
The maximum dose of atropine for bradycardia is 3 mg.
Incorrect. Atropine is given at a dose of 0.5 mg every 3-5 minutes during bradycardia, up to a maximum dose of 3 mg.
Correct. Atropine is given at a dose of 0.5 mg every 3-5 minutes during bradycardia, up to a maximum dose of 3 mg.
What is the recommended action after ROSC is achieved?
Incorrect. Oxygen levels should be monitored and optimized to maintain saturation within the target range of 92-96%.
Correct. Oxygen levels should be monitored and optimized to maintain saturation within the target range of 92-96%.
Defibrillation should always be performed within 10 minutes of identifying VF.
Incorrect. Defibrillation should be performed immediately after identifying VF, not delayed up to 10 minutes.
Correct. Defibrillation should be performed immediately after identifying VF, not delayed up to 10 minutes.
What is the recommended duration of a pulse check in cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Pulse checks should be limited to 10 seconds to minimize interruptions in chest compressions.
Correct. Pulse checks should be limited to 10 seconds to minimize interruptions in chest compressions.
The correct defibrillation dose for pediatric cardiac arrest starts at 4 J/kg.
Incorrect. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg, increasing to 4 J/kg for subsequent shocks if needed.
Correct. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg, increasing to 4 J/kg for subsequent shocks if needed.
What is the most common cause of PEA?
Incorrect. Hypoxia is a reversible cause of PEA; it must be treated immediately with oxygenation and ventilation.
Correct. Hypoxia is a reversible cause of PEA; it must be treated immediately with oxygenation and ventilation.
How often should chest compressors switch roles to avoid fatigue?
Incorrect. Switching compressors every 2 minutes reduces rescuer fatigue, ensuring high-quality chest compressions are maintained.
Correct. Switching compressors every 2 minutes reduces rescuer fatigue, ensuring high-quality chest compressions are maintained.
What is the initial treatment for pulseless electrical activity (PEA)?
Incorrect. CPR is the primary treatment for PEA, along with epinephrine and addressing reversible causes to restore circulation.
Correct. CPR is the primary treatment for PEA, along with epinephrine and addressing reversible causes to restore circulation.
What is the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio during CPR?
Incorrect. For adult CPR, the ratio ensures adequate perfusion and oxygenation when no advanced airway is in place.
Correct. For adult CPR, the ratio ensures adequate perfusion and oxygenation when no advanced airway is in place.
What is the compression rate for CPR in adults?
Incorrect. This rate ensures effective circulation without causing inadequate ventricular filling.
Correct. This rate ensures effective circulation without causing inadequate ventricular filling.
How should you position a patient for defibrillation?
Incorrect. A supine position ensures proper electrode placement and effective delivery of defibrillation shocks.
Correct. A supine position ensures proper electrode placement and effective delivery of defibrillation shocks.
What is the first-line treatment for narrow-complex tachycardia?
Incorrect. Vagal maneuvers stimulate the vagus nerve, often terminating reentrant arrhythmias causing narrow-complex tachycardia.
Correct. Vagal maneuvers stimulate the vagus nerve, often terminating reentrant arrhythmias causing narrow-complex tachycardia.
Which condition is part of the H's and T's for reversible causes of cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Hypothermia is a potentially reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be addressed during resuscitation.
Correct. Hypothermia is a potentially reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be addressed during resuscitation.
Pulseless electrical activity (PEA) is treated with defibrillation.
Incorrect. PEA is not a shockable rhythm; it is managed with high-quality CPR and addressing the underlying reversible causes.
Correct. PEA is not a shockable rhythm; it is managed with high-quality CPR and addressing the underlying reversible causes.
What is the target PETCO2 during high-quality CPR?
Incorrect. PETCO2 readings above 10 mmHg during CPR indicate adequate chest compressions and cardiac output.
Correct. PETCO2 readings above 10 mmHg during CPR indicate adequate chest compressions and cardiac output.
Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized electrical activity.
Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized electrical activity.
What is the initial dose of magnesium sulfate for torsades de pointes?
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate is administered to stabilize the myocardium and treat torsades de pointes effectively.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate is administered to stabilize the myocardium and treat torsades de pointes effectively.
Synchronized cardioversion is used for pulseless ventricular tachycardia.
Incorrect. Pulseless VT is treated with defibrillation, while synchronized cardioversion is reserved for tachyarrhythmias with a pulse.
Correct. Pulseless VT is treated with defibrillation, while synchronized cardioversion is reserved for tachyarrhythmias with a pulse.
What is the drug of choice for stable wide-complex tachycardia?
Incorrect. Amiodarone is used to stabilize wide-complex tachycardias in stable patients to prevent deterioration into cardiac arrest.
Correct. Amiodarone is used to stabilize wide-complex tachycardias in stable patients to prevent deterioration into cardiac arrest.
What is the preferred alternative route if IV access is not available?
Incorrect. IO access provides a reliable alternative for rapid drug delivery during resuscitation when IV access cannot be obtained.
Correct. IO access provides a reliable alternative for rapid drug delivery during resuscitation when IV access cannot be obtained.
Hypoxia is a common cause of pulseless electrical activity (PEA).
Incorrect. Hypoxia is one of the most common reversible causes of PEA and is addressed with high-quality oxygenation during resuscitation.
Correct. Hypoxia is one of the most common reversible causes of PEA and is addressed with high-quality oxygenation during resuscitation.
What is the dose of epinephrine for adult cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Epinephrine is given at a dose of 1 mg IV/IO every 3-5 minutes during adult cardiac arrest to improve perfusion.
Correct. Epinephrine is given at a dose of 1 mg IV/IO every 3-5 minutes during adult cardiac arrest to improve perfusion.
The maximum dose of atropine for bradycardia is 5 mg.
Incorrect. The maximum dose of atropine for bradycardia is 3 mg, with doses given at 0.5 mg intervals every 3-5 minutes.
Correct. The maximum dose of atropine for bradycardia is 3 mg, with doses given at 0.5 mg intervals every 3-5 minutes.
What is the first drug given for VF or pulseless VT?
Incorrect. Epinephrine is administered after defibrillation to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion during resuscitation.
Correct. Epinephrine is administered after defibrillation to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion during resuscitation.
What is the maximum pause allowed for chest compressions during CPR?
Incorrect. Interruptions in chest compressions should be minimized to less than 10 seconds to maintain adequate perfusion.
Correct. Interruptions in chest compressions should be minimized to less than 10 seconds to maintain adequate perfusion.
What is the primary treatment for symptomatic bradycardia?
Incorrect. Atropine is the first-line drug for treating symptomatic bradycardia by increasing heart rate through vagal inhibition.
Correct. Atropine is the first-line drug for treating symptomatic bradycardia by increasing heart rate through vagal inhibition.
During advanced airway management, breaths should be delivered every 6-8 seconds.
Incorrect. Providing 6-8 breaths per minute prevents hyperventilation and maintains adequate oxygenation during CPR with an advanced airway.
Correct. Providing 6-8 breaths per minute prevents hyperventilation and maintains adequate oxygenation during CPR with an advanced airway.
What is the recommended oxygen saturation goal during post-cardiac arrest care?
Incorrect. Oxygen saturation should be maintained at 92-96% to prevent hypoxia and avoid the harmful effects of hyperoxia.
Correct. Oxygen saturation should be maintained at 92-96% to prevent hypoxia and avoid the harmful effects of hyperoxia.
What is the primary treatment for VF or pulseless VT?
Incorrect. These shockable rhythms require immediate defibrillation to restore a perfusing rhythm.
Correct. These shockable rhythms require immediate defibrillation to restore a perfusing rhythm.
Which rhythm is shockable in cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
Correct. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
How soon should defibrillation be attempted in a witnessed VF arrest?
Incorrect. Early defibrillation within 30 seconds of a witnessed VF arrest increases survival rates significantly.
Correct. Early defibrillation within 30 seconds of a witnessed VF arrest increases survival rates significantly.
How soon should defibrillation be delivered for VF/VT?
Incorrect. Early defibrillation is critical for survival, especially in shockable rhythms like VF/VT.
Correct. Early defibrillation is critical for survival, especially in shockable rhythms like VF/VT.
What is the maximum pause duration between chest compressions?
Incorrect. Pausing compressions for more than 10 seconds interrupts perfusion and reduces the chances of ROSC.
Correct. Pausing compressions for more than 10 seconds interrupts perfusion and reduces the chances of ROSC.
What is the appropriate treatment for VF in cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm, and defibrillation is the most effective intervention to restore a normal rhythm.
Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm, and defibrillation is the most effective intervention to restore a normal rhythm.
ROSC should be followed by immediate reassessment of the patientโs rhythm and ventilation.
Incorrect. Following ROSC, immediate reassessment ensures stability of the patientโs rhythm, oxygenation, and ventilation.
Correct. Following ROSC, immediate reassessment ensures stability of the patientโs rhythm, oxygenation, and ventilation.
The initial dose of amiodarone for refractory VF is 300 mg IV/IO.
Incorrect. Amiodarone 300 mg IV/IO is administered after defibrillation and epinephrine to treat refractory VF or pulseless VT.
Correct. Amiodarone 300 mg IV/IO is administered after defibrillation and epinephrine to treat refractory VF or pulseless VT.
What is the maximum energy dose for defibrillation in adults?
Incorrect. Maximum energy for monophasic defibrillators; for biphasic, follow manufacturer recommendations.
Correct. Maximum energy for monophasic defibrillators; for biphasic, follow manufacturer recommendations.
Which rhythm is non-shockable during cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. PEA is treated with CPR and epinephrine, as defibrillation is ineffective for non-shockable rhythms.
Correct. PEA is treated with CPR and epinephrine, as defibrillation is ineffective for non-shockable rhythms.
Incorrect. Indicates effective chest compressions and blood circulation during resuscitation.
Correct. Indicates effective chest compressions and blood circulation during resuscitation.
How many cycles of CPR should be completed before reassessing the rhythm?
Incorrect. Two minutes of CPR (about 5 cycles of 30 compressions and 2 breaths) should be completed before checking the rhythm.
Correct. Two minutes of CPR (about 5 cycles of 30 compressions and 2 breaths) should be completed before checking the rhythm.
What is the maximum dose of atropine for bradycardia?
Incorrect. Atropine doses should not exceed 3 mg during bradycardia management to avoid adverse effects.
Correct. Atropine doses should not exceed 3 mg during bradycardia management to avoid adverse effects.
Defibrillation should be delayed until after administering epinephrine in ventricular fibrillation.
Incorrect. Defibrillation is the priority for VF and should not be delayed for drug administration, as it is the definitive treatment.
Correct. Defibrillation is the priority for VF and should not be delayed for drug administration, as it is the definitive treatment.
What is the primary intervention for symptomatic bradycardia?
Incorrect. Atropine is the first-line treatment for symptomatic bradycardia, increasing the heart rate by blocking vagal stimulation.
Correct. Atropine is the first-line treatment for symptomatic bradycardia, increasing the heart rate by blocking vagal stimulation.
